ChatGPT:
Both "when a first predetermined period has elapsed" and "after a first predetermined period has elapsed" are grammatically correct and natural, but there is a slight nuance between them:
🔹 "when a first predetermined period has elapsed"
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Emphasizes the exact timing — the event (e.g., stopping voltage) happens at the moment the period ends.
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Often used in control logic, programming, or technical contexts where precision matters.
✅ Preferred when the action should occur immediately at the completion of the period.
“The control device stops voltage application when a first predetermined period has elapsed.”
⟶ Implies the stopping happens right at the end of that period.
🔹 "after a first predetermined period has elapsed"
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Slightly more relaxed — implies the event happens sometime following the end of the period, not necessarily at the exact moment.
✅ Appropriate when the timing is less precise, or to emphasize sequence rather than simultaneity.
“The control device stops voltage application after a first predetermined period has elapsed.”
⟶ Could mean a short delay after the period ends.
✅ Recommendation for technical or patent writing:
“when a first predetermined period has elapsed”
is slightly better if you're trying to convey precise control behavior (which is typical in such documents).
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