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On which two types of interface is Frame Relay switching supported? (Choose two.)
A. serial interfaces
B. Ethernet interfaces
C. fiber interfaces
D. ISDN interfaces
E. auxiliary interfaces
Answer: A,D

Which statement is true?
A. RADIUS uses TCP, and TACACS+ uses UDP.
B. RADIUS encrypts the entire body of the packet.
C. TACACS+ encrypts only the password portion of a packet.
D. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization.
Answer: D

In IPv6, SLAAC provides the ability to address a host based on a network prefix that is advertised from a local network router. How is the prefix advertised?
A. routing table
B. router advertisements
C. routing protocol
D. routing type
Answer: B

Which two routing protocols are supported by Easy Virtual Network? (Choose two.)
A. RIPv2
B. OSPFv2
C. BGP
D. EIGRP
E. IS-IS
Answer: B,D

A network engineer is considering enabling load balancing with EIGRP. Which consideration should be analyzed?
A. EIGRP allows a maximum of four paths across for load balancing traffic.
B. By default, EIGRP uses a default variance of 2 for load balancing.
C. EIGRP unequal path load balancing can result in routing loops.
D. By default, EIGRP performs equal cost load balancing at least across four equal cost paths.
Answer: D

An engineer is configuring a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address on the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface. Which option also is required on the tunnel interface before it is operational?
A. tunnel destination address
B. keepalives
C. IPv6 address
D. tunnel protection
Answer: A


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Share some CCNP 300-115 exam questions and answers below.
Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk interface that allows all VLANs. This command is configured globally: monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 - 8, 39, 52
What is the result of the implemented command?
A. All VLAN traffic is sent to the SPAN destination interface.
B. Traffic from VLAN 4 is not sent to the SPAN destination interface.
C. Filtering a trunked SPAN port effectively disables SPAN operations for all VLANs.
D. The trunk's native VLAN must be changed to something other than VLAN 1.
E. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.
Answer: E


A network engineer must set the load balance method on an existing port channel.
Which action must be done to apply a new load balancing method?
A. Configure the new load balancing method using port-channel load-balance.
B. Adjust the switch SDM back to "default".
C. Ensure that IP CEF is enabled globally to support all load balancing methods.
D. Upgrade the PFC to support the latest load balancing methods.
Answer: A


Which statement about Cisco devices learning about each other through Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?
A. Each device sends periodic advertisements to multicast address 01:00:0C:CC:CC:CC.
B. Each device broadcasts periodic advertisements to all of its neighbors.
C. Each device sends periodic advertisements to a central device that builds the network topology.
D. Each device sends periodic advertisements to all IP addresses in its ARP table.
Answer: A


A manager tells the network engineer to permit only certain VLANs across a specific trunk interface.
Which option can be configured to accomplish this?
A. allowed VLAN list
B. VTP pruning
C. VACL
D. L2P tunneling
Answer: A


After UDLD is implemented, a Network Administrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state.
Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?
A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.
Answer: B


While working in the core network building, a technician accidently bumps the fiber connection between two core switches and damages one of the pairs of fiber. As designed, the link was placed into a non-forwarding state due to a fault with UDLD. After the damaged cable was replaced, the link did not recover.
What solution allows the network switch to automatically recover from such an issue?
A. macros
B. errdisable autorecovery
C. IP Event Dampening
D. command aliases
E. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
Answer: B


When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address is true?
A: The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port.
B: The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface.
C: The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port.
D: The IP address is assigned via DHCP only.
Answer: B

A network engineer has just deployed a non-Cisco device in the network and wants to get information about it from a connected device. Cisco Discovery Protocol is not supported, so the open standard protocol must be configured.
Which protocol does the network engineer configure on both devices to accomplish this?
A. IRDP
B. LLDP
C. NDP
D. LLTD
Answer: B


Which statement about the use of SDM templates in a Cisco switch is true?
A. SDM templates are used to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network.
B. SDM templates are used to create Layer 3 interfaces (switch virtual interfaces) to permit hosts in one VLAN to communicate with hosts in another VLAN.
C. SDM templates are used to configure ACLs that protect networks and specific hosts from unnecessary or unwanted traffic.
D. SDM templates are used to configure a set of ACLs that allows the users to manage the flow of traffic handled by the route processor.
E. SDM templates are configured by accessing the switch using the web interface.
Answer: A


While doing network discovery using Cisco Discovery Protocol, it is found that rapid error tracking is not currently enabled.
Which option must be enabled to allow for enhanced reporting mechanisms using Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2
B. Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager
C. logging buffered
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol source interface
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol logging options
Answer: A


A new network that consists of several switches has been connected together via trunking interfaces. If all switches currently have the default VTP domain name "null", which statement describes what happens when a domain name is configured on one of the switches?
A. The switch with the non-default domain name restores back to "null" upon reboot.
B. Switches with higher revision numbers does not accept the new domain name.
C. VTP summary advertisements are sent out of all ports with the new domain name.
D. All other switches with the default domain name become VTP clients.
Answer: C


An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel between two switches using LACP. If the EtherChannel mode on switch 1 is configured to active, which two modes on switch 2?establish an operational EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
A: active
B: auto
C: desirable
D: on
E: passive
Answer: A, E

Which statement about LLDP-MED is true?
A. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates between endpoint devices and network devices.
B. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates only between network devices.
C. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates only between endpoint devices.
D. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates between routers that run BGP.
Answer: A


In which portion of the frame is the 802.1q header found?
A. within the Ethernet header
B. within the Ethernet payload
C. within the Ethernet FCS
D. within the Ethernet source MAC address
Answer: A

Which SDM template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses?
A. VLAN
B. access
C. default
D. routing
Answer: A


In a Cisco switch, what is the default period of time after which a MAC address ages out and is discarded?
A. 100 seconds
B. 180 seconds
C. 300 seconds
D. 600 seconds
Answer: C


Which feature is automatically enabled when a voice VLAN is configured, but not automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is removed?
A. portfast
B. port-security
C. spanning tree
D. storm control
Answer: A


Which VLAN range is eligible to be pruned when a network engineer enables VTP pruning on a switch?
A. VLANs 1-1001
B. VLANs 1-4094
C. VLANs 2-1001
D. VLANs 2-4094
Answer: C


When SDM templates are configured, which action must be performed for the configuration to take effect?
A: reload
B: shutdown
C: write memory
D: backup config
Answer: A

A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack.
Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
Answer: A


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Share some CCE 600-460 exam questions and answers below.
Within Cisco Unified ICM, which process handles communication between the router and peripheral gateway components?
A. dbagent
B. opcs
C. ccagent
D. mds
Answer: C

You are about to perform a Tech Refresh upgrade for a customer. The customer wants more details about how the historical data is maintained. The customer has two sides each with a router, logger, and HDS-DDS. Which is the best explanation?
A. The loggers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each logger keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
B. The routers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each router keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
C. The HDS-DDSs continuously synchronized the historical data to keep themselves up to date.
D. Each side synchronized its data from the logger using SQL replication.
Answer: A

In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified CVP, which two statements about how to increase the Cisco Unified CVP availability are true? (Choose two.)
A. Must have SIP Proxy server to pass messages between the gateways and the Cisco Unified CVP servers.
B. Must have voice gateway TCL scripts to handle conditions where the gateways cannot contact the Cisco Unified CVP Call Server to direct the call correctly.
C. Add load balancers to load balance .wav file requests across multiple Cisco Unified CVP Media Servers.
D. Dedicate duplexed VRU peripheral gateways for each Cisco Unified CVP call server.
E. For a single data center with centralized deployment, deploy Cisco Unified CVP with N:N redundancy.
Answer: B,C

Which two things can cause the "Send to VRU" to fail within an ICM script for Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal? (Choose two.)
A. No network VRU is configured for the routing client.
B. VRU PIM just got out of service.
C. Incorrect media file name.
D. Send to originator is not enabled.
E. Primary VRU peripheral gateway is out of service.
Answer: A,B

In the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution, which process is responsible for peer-to-peer
synchronization?
A. ccagent
B. mds
C. router
D. opc
Answer: B

When performing an upgrade to Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, which components do not need to be upgraded together during the same maintenance window?
A. Cisco Unified ICM call router and logger
B. Cisco Unified ICM call router and administrative workstation
C. Cisco Unified ICM call router and peripheral gateway
D. administrative workstation and HDS-DDS
Answer: C

In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, if the private network fails but the visible network is still operational, which statement is true?
A. The system stops routing calls because it cannot function without a private network.
B. The private network data is rerouted automatically over the visible network.
C. Both call routers go active and attempt to split the system until the private network is restored.
D. The system continues to operate but with only one call router in simplex mode.
Answer: D

Which option about the ICM heartbeat interval and maximum number of missed heartbeats allowed between duplexed sides over the private network is true?
A. 100 ms, 3 heartbeats
B. 100 ms, 5 heartbeats
C. 400 ms, 3 heartbeats
D. 400 ms, 5 heartbeats
E. The heartbeat interval and maximum missed heartbeats settings can be customized by a system administrator
Answer: B

You are about to perform a Tech Refresh upgrade for a customer. The customer wants more details about how the historical data is maintained. The customer has two sides each with a router, logger, and HDS-DDS. Which is the best explanation?
A. The loggers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each logger keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
B. The routers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each router keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
C. The HDS-DDSs continuously synchronized the historical data to keep themselves up to date.
D. Each side synchronized its data from the logger using SQL replication.
Answer: A

Which option about the ICM heartbeat interval and maximum number of missed heartbeats allowed between duplexed sides over the private network is true?
A. 100 ms, 3 heartbeats
B. 100 ms, 5 heartbeats
C. 400 ms, 3 heartbeats
D. 400 ms, 5 heartbeats
E. The heartbeat interval and maximum missed heartbeats settings can be customized by a system administrator
Answer: B


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Share some Software as a Service - Oracle Enterprise Resource Planning Cloud 1Z0-963 exam questions and answers below.
During implementation, the transformation maps that are associated with external facing interfaces must be modified to map the _____.
A. extensible flexfield attributes to the enterprise business objectattributes
B. extensible flexfield attributes to the fulfillment order line
C. enterprise business object attributes to the fulfillment order line
D. fulfillment order line to the extensible flexfield attributes
Answer: A


Identify the Duty role that you need to associate with the Job role to enable the ¡°new supplier request¡± functionality.
A. Supplier sales representative duty
B. Supplier bidder duty
C. Submit supplier registration duty
D. Supplier Self Service administrator duty
E. Supplier SelfService clerk duty
Answer: C


During a Procurement Contract implementation, a customer would like to set up their own line type for buying services. They intend to use this line type for negotiating terms for future purchase of services and do not have a defined scope of work.
Identify the source that the customer needs to select while creating the line type to meet this requirement.
A. Free form, buy
B. Free form, buy agreement
C. Item, buy agreement
D. Item, buy
Answer: D


An organization has initiated a campaign for energy conservation and wants all its suppliers to declare their carbon emissions. The Qualification manager is asked to create an initiative to collect the information and the certificates from suppliers.
Identify the method to create a qualification area without any defined outcome for this requirement.
A. Create questions. Create and add the questions to a qualification area, but do not select the ¡°Information only¡± check box.
B. Create questions, but do not select ¡°Response required¡± and ¡°Critical question¡±. Createand add questions to a qualification area.
C. Create questions, but do not select ¡°Response required¡±. Create and add questions to a qualification area, but do not select the ¡°Information only¡± check box.
D. Create questions. Create and add the questionsto a qualification area and select the ¡°Information only¡± check box.
Answer: D


In a Procurement implementation, your customer has a requirement for a given business unit to enable ¡°funds check¡± on purchase orders. This requires that budgetary control be enabled.
What configuration must you complete to enable budgetary control in that business unit?
A. Enable budgetary control in both the Configure Requisition Business Function and Configure Procurement Business Function by selecting the business unit in scope.
B. Enable budgetary control by selecting the business unit in scope using the task Configure Procurement and Payables Options.
C. Enable budgetary control by selecting the business unit in scope using the task Configure Procurement Business Function.
D. Enable budgetary control by selecting the ledger and business unit by using the task Manage Budgetary Control.
Answer: B

What is the difference between Prospective and Spend authorized suppliers?
A. Prospective suppliers can participate in Sourcing activities only, whereas Spend authorized suppliers can participate in all Procure-to-Pay activities.
B. Prospective suppliers arelimited to sourcing and qualification activities, whereas Spend authorized suppliers are limited to purchase orders and agreements.
C. Prospective suppliers are limited to purchase orders, whereas both purchase order and agreement can be created for Spendauthorized suppliers.
D. Prospective suppliers are suggested by internal users, whereas Spend authorized suppliers are registered externally.
Answer: B


During the User acceptance testing of your Cloud Procurement implementation, a user has created a purchase order and is trying to submit the purchase order for approval. On clicking Submit, the user gets a ¡°Funds check failed¡± error.
Identify the cause of this error.
A. Funds are available but the approver is not set up as ¡°Budget Manager¡± for the selected budget for the businessunit.
B. Funds are insufficient and budget type is ¡°Track¡±.
C. Funds are insufficient and budget type is ¡°Absolute¡±.
D. Funds are insufficient and budget type is ¡°Advisory¡±.
Answer: C


Five requisition lines of a single requisition document are available to process on to purchase order. But the buyer returned one requisition line to the requester for quantity modification.
What will be the effect of this action on the remaining four requisition lines?
A. They will be put on hold until the requester resubmits the returned line with the correct quantity.
B. They will also get returned to the requester.
C. They will be in the ¡°withdrawn¡± status.
D. They will be available to process on to purchaseorder.
E. They will get canceled.
Answer: A


Five requisition lines of a single requisition document are available to process on to purchase order. But the buyer returned one requisition line to the requester for quantity modification.What will be the effect of this action on the remaining four requisition lines?
A. They will be put on hold until the requester resubmits the returned line with the correct quantity.
B. They will also get returned to the requester.
C. They will be in the “withdrawn” status.
D. They will be available to process on to purchaseorder.
E. They will get canceled.
Answer: A

Your customer is implementing the full suite of Cloud procurement. They would like to know how best they can utilize the Contract Terms library.
Identify three applications from where users can access the Contract Terms library for setting up ¡°contract terms¡± for different documents.
A. Supplier Model
B. Self Service Procurement
C. Sourcing
D. Procurement Contracts
E. Purchasing
Answer: C,D,E



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