CertTree Juniper JNCIA-Junos JN0-102 study guide

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Share some JNCIA JN0-102 exam questions and answers below.
Which statement describes exception traffic?
A. Exception traffic must be sent to the PFE for processing.
B. Exception traffic enters one ingress port and is sent out multiple egress ports.
C. Exception traffic is rate-limited on the internal link to prevent DoS attacks.
D. Exception traffic is processed after forwarding traffic when congestion exists.
Answer: C

-- Exhibit --
user@router> show configuration
groups {
ge-int {
interfaces {
{
unit 0 {
familyinet {
address 10.10.12.1/24;
}
}
}
}
}
}
...
interfaces {
ge-0/0/1 {
unit 0;
}
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, which two actions would you take to only apply the 10.10.12.1/24 address to the ge-0/0/1.0 interface?
A. Apply the ge-int group to the configuration at the [edit] hierarchy.
B. Apply the ge-int group to the configuration at the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1] hierarchy.
C. Apply the ge-int group to the configuration at the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1 unit 0] hierarchy.
D. Apply the ge-int group to the configuration at the [edit interfaces] hierarchy.
Answer: B, C

What must you type to enter operational mode from the root@% command prompt?
A. exit
B. configure
C. edit
D. cli
Answer: D

When using keyboard shortcuts, which keystroke combination allows users to erase a single word to the left of the cursor?
A. Ctrl + a
B. Ctrl + e
C. Ctrl + u
D. Ctrl + w
Answer: D

Which command prompt indicates that you are in operational mode?
A. user@router&
B. user@router#
C. user@router%
D. user@router>
Answer: D

How many host addresses are available in the /28 network?
A. 6
B. 14
C. 28
D. 30
Answer: B

What is the decimal equivalent of 00000100?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 9
D. 12
Answer: B

Which layer in the TCP/IP model is responsible for delivering packets to their destination?
A. Application Layer
B. Transport Layer
C. Internet Layer
D. Network Access Layer
Answer: C


What is the binary equivalent of 242.168.94.124?
A. 11110011 10101000 01011110 01111100
B. 11110010 10101010 01011110 01111100
C. 11110010 10101000 01011110 01111100
D. 11110010 10101000 01010110 01111100
Answer: C

-- Exhibit --
{master:0}[edit interfaces]
user@switch# show
me0 {
disable;
unit 0 {
familyinet {
address 10.1.1.10/24;
}
}
}
-- Exhibit --
Administrators report that they are unable to access the management interface of the EX Series device shown in the exhibit.
Which command will resolve this problem?
A. delete me0 disable
B. activate me0
C. set me0 unit 0 enable
D. deactivate me0
Answer: A

Which layer in the TCP/IP model is responsible for delivering packets to their destination?
A. Application Layer
B. Transport Layer
C. Internet Layer
D. Network Access Layer
Answer: C

What are two examples of RE exception traffic? (Choose two.)
A. BGP updates that travel through the local router and are destined for a remote router.
B. OSPF hello packets that are sent from a remote router and are destined for the local router.
C. Telnet traffic that is sent from a remote host and is destined for the local router.
D. Telnet traffic that travels through the local router and is destined for a remote end host.
Answer: B, C

Which simplified IPv6 address is the same as the IP address 2001:0000:1000:0000:0000:cbff:0020:0001/64?
A. 2001::1::cbff:2:0001/64
B. 2001::1000::cbff:20:1/64
C. 2001:0:1000::cbff:20:1/64
D. 2001:0:1:0:0:cbff:2:1/64
Answer: C

Which two statements are true regarding rescue configurations? (Choose two.)
A. Once saved, a rescue configuration is loaded using the rollback 0 command.
B. The rescue configuration must contain the minimal elements necessary to restore network connectivity.
C. A minimal rescue configuration is defined by default.
D. A rescue configuration must include a root password.
Answer: B, D

-- Exhibit --
user@router> show route protocol static
inet.0: 15 destinations, 15 routes (15 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden)
+ = Active Route, - = Last Active, * = Both
99.0.0.0/17 *[Static/5] 00:00:11
>to 10.1.1.2 via ge-0/0/1.0
99.0.0.0/19 *[Static/5] 00:00:11
>to 10.1.2.2 via ge-0/0/2.0
99.0.0.0/24 *[Static/5] 00:00:11
>to 10.1.3.2 via ge-0/0/3.0
99.0.0.0/26 *[Static/5] 00:00:11
>to 10.1.4.2 via ge-0/0/4.0
-- Exhibit --
In the exhibit, there are four static routes that route traffic through different interfaces.
Which interface does the router use if traffic is sent to the 99.0.0.1 destination?
A. ge-0/0/1
B. ge-0/0/2
C. ge-0/0/3
D. ge-0/0/4
Answer: D


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CertTree Avaya ACSS 7893X practice test

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Share some ACSS 7893X exam questions and answers below.
On an IP Office 500 V2 there are two SD card slots. The first contains the System SD card, which has a unique feature key number.
The unique feature key number is essential for which purpose?
A. to provide the upgrade tool
B. to validate licenses
C. to set the Voicemail type, either Embedded or Voicemail Pro
D. to allow the storage of the correct version bin files
Answer: B

When planning for a Small Community Network (SCN), which two are required? (Choose two.)
A. PRI service
B. Preferred Edition
C. IP Routes
D. VCMs
E. H.248
Answer: C,D


On an IP Office 500 V2 there are two SD card slots. The first contains the System SD card, which has a unique feature key number The unique feature key number is essential for which purpose?
A. to provide the upgrade tool
B. to validate licenses
C. to set the Voicemail type, either Embedded or Voicemail Pro
D. to allow the storage of the correct version bin files
Answer: B

Using the Upgrade Wizard, which Password is required when upgrading the IP Office 500 V2?
A. Manager password
B. Security password
C. System password
D. Administration password
Answer: C


Which two applications does the Unified Communication Module (UCM) support without the addition of an external server? (Choose two.)
A. Avaya Contact Recorder
B. one-X® Communicator
C. one-X® Portal
D. Embedded Voicemail
E. Voicemail Pro
Answer: C,E

When you first power on the IP Office, there are two default incoming call routes; one is to route all voice calls to the Hunt Group main, which contains the first 10 extensions, and the other is for data calls.
Where do the data calls go by default?
A. RAS access ¡°Dialin¡±
B. Hunt group ¡°Data¡±
C. Extension ¡°Modern¡±
D. Hunt group ¡°Main¡±
Answer: A

Which IP Office feature is required to initiate screen pops, where the caller ID triggers a computer to open a record related to that number?
A. IMAP
B. TAPILink Lite
C. UMS
D. Outlook Plugin
Answer: B

A remote worker with Avaya Windows Communicator visits their office headquarters where the IP Office and one-X Portal are located. Which two technologies enable the worker to re-register locally? (Choose two.)
A. Border controller
B. Wi-Fi access
C. Split DNS
D. Port forwarding
E. XMPP
Answer: B, C

A customer has two main receptionists using SoftConsole; however, when they are on a break or at lunch, there are four back office workers that can open the SoftConsole on their PC to take calls to cover these periods.
How many licenses are required for this to work?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: D


By adding a 4-port expansion card To the IP Office 500 V2T how many expansion units can the IP Office support in total?
A. 10
B. 8
C. 12
D. 14
Answer: C

A customer wants all employees to be able to communicate seamlessly with each other and external parties. Some of their employees are often on the road, or off-site.
Which application could you recommend for these users?
A. Mobile Twinning
B. Avaya Communicator
C. Suggest the User divert their extension to their mobile
D. one-X Mobile Preferred
Answer: D

In a Small Community Network (SCN) with Distributed Voicemail, which two are required? (Choose two.)
A. Local Host file
B. SMTP unblocked between Voicemail servers
C. Preferred Edition Licenses on all IP Office systems
D. Port 80 supported
E. IIS installed on all Voicemail Pro servers.
Answer: B,E


Which application can be used to show available resources in an IP500 V2?
A. DbgView
B. IP Office Manager
C. Monitor
D. System Status Application
Answer: D


To create and make changes to all aspects of the system, which mode in Manager do you select?
A. Installation Mode
B. Simplified View
C. Basic Edition
D. Configuration Mode
Answer: D

Which outcome can be prevented with a correctly configured multi-site SCN solution?
A. tromboned calls
B. oversubscribed VMPro ports
C. compromised ACD routes
D. oversubscribed VoiceMail storage
Answer: B


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