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CCNA Data Center DCICT 200-155 dumps|CertTree

2017-10-12 14:43:30 | 日記
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The Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies (DCICT) exam (200-155) is a 90-minute, 55–65 question assessment. This exam is one of the exams associated with the CCNA Data Center Certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of fundamental data center technologies including unified computing, data center network virtualization, Cisco data center networking technologies, data center automation and orchestration, and Application Centric Infrastructure. The course, Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies v6 (DCICT), will help candidates prepare for this exam, as the content is aligned with the exam topics.


Share some CCNA Data Center 200-155 exam questions and answers below.
Which model is a deployment model in cloud computing?
A. automate cloud
B. layered cloud
C. private cloud
D. collapsed cloud
Answer: A

Refer to the exhibit.



A network engineer allocates 12 physical ports to a new VDC.
Which command is used to verify VDC port allocation on a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. show vdc port-membership
B. show vdc port-allocation
C. show vdc allocation
D. show vdc membership
Answer: B

When using a Cisco UCS Director, a typical workflow consists of which two terms? (Choose Two)
A. Resource Manager
B. Workflow Designer
C. Scheduler
D. Activity Planner
E. Predefined Tasks
Answer: BE

What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)
A. provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
B. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
C. has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
D. uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
E. uses TIL field to provide loop mitigation
Answer: BD

Which two options are primary elements of a tenant? (Choose two)
A. firewall rules
B. contracts
C. EPG
D. access policies
E. switch domains
Answer: BC

Which model is a deployment model in cloud computing?
A. automate cloud
B. layered cloud
C. private cloud
D. collapsed cloud
Answer: A

Which privilege is assigned by default to the UCS Manager Storage Administrator user role?
A. service-storage-security-config
B. service-admin-config
C. service-admin
D. service-profile-storage
Answer: D

Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VWware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose two)
A. access control lists
B. QoS marking
C. Network vMotion
D. port state migration
E. DV Port Groups
Answer: AB

Which statement about a bridge domain is true?
A. A bridge domain must be liked to one internal network and one external network
B. A bridge domain must be linked to a physical domain
C. A bridge domain typically has at least one subnet that Is associated with it
D. A bridge domain must have at least one external network that is associated with it
Answer: C

Which privilege is assigned by default to the UCS Manager Storage Administrator user role?
A. service-storage-security-config
B. service-admin-config
C. service-admin
D. service-profile-storage
Answer: D

Which statement about a bridge domain is true?
A. A bridge domain must be liked to one internal network and one external network
B. A bridge domain must be linked to a physical domain
C. A bridge domain typically has at least one subnet that Is associated with it
D. A bridge domain must have at least one external network that is associated with it
Answer: C

Which two standards enable Ethernet to support FCoE? (Choose two.)
A. Priority Flow Control
B. Virtuall Extensible LAN
C. Enhanced Transmission Selection
D. Address Resolution Protocol
E. virtual port channel and virtual device context
Answer: CE

When using a Cisco UCS Director, a typical workflow consists of which two terms? (Choose Two)
A. Resource Manager
B. Workflow Designer
C. Scheduler
D. Activity Planner
E. Predefined Tasks
Answer: BE

Which two options are primary elements of a tenant? (Choose two)
A. firewall rules
B. contracts
C. EPG
D. access policies
E. switch domains
Answer: BC

Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VWware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose two)
A. access control lists
B. QoS marking
C. Network vMotion
D. port state migration
E. DV Port Groups
Answer: AB


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Cisco CCDP 300-320 ARCH study guide|CertTree

2017-10-11 15:40:17 | 日記
CertTree Cisco CCDP 300-320 ARCH study guide|CertTree is the best training materials. If you are an IT staff, it will be your indispensable training materials. Do not take your future betting on tomorrow. CertTree Cisco CCDP 300-320 ARCH study guide|CertTree are absolutely trustworthy. We are dedicated to provide the materials to the world of the candidates who want to participate in IT exam. To get the Cisco 300-320 exam certification is the goal of many IT people & Network professionals. The pass rate of CertTree is incredibly high. We are committed to your success.

The Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH) exam (300-320) is a 75-minute assessment with 60 – 70 questions associated with the Cisco Certified Design Professional certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of the latest development in network design and technologies, including L2 and L3 infrastructures for the enterprise, WAN technologies, data center integration, network security and network services.


Share some CCDP 300-320 exam questions and answers below.
Which technology extends Layer 2 LANs over any network that supports IP?
A. OTV
B. VSS
C. vPC
D. VLAN
Answer: A

Which option is a common cause of congestion found in a campus network?
A. input serialization delay
B. output serialization delay
C. Rx-queue starvation
D. Tx-queue starvation
Answer: D

Which option is the Cisco preferred, most versatile, and highest-performance way to deploy IPv6 in existing IPv4 environments?
A. dual stack
B. hybrid
C. service block
D. dual service
Answer: A

A network manager wants to securely connect a new remote site to the existing headquarters site using a VPN technology that meets security requirements.
Which VPN technology should be used?
A. GRE
B. IPsec
C. remote-access VPN
D. L2TP VPN
Answer: B

Which option is the Cisco recommendation for data oversubscription for access ports on the access-todistribution uplink?
A. 4 to 1
B. 20 to 1
C. 16 to 1
D. 10 to 1
Answer: B

CoS is applied for Layer 2 markings in an Ethernet environment.
Which protocol must be configured on the Layer 2 switch port for CoS to work?
A. MPLS
B. IEEE 802.1W
C. IEEE 802.1Q
D. IEEE 802.1S
Answer: C

Which three options are benefits of using VRFs within an enterprise network? (Choose three.)
A. simplifies configuration and troubleshooting
B. enables partitioning of network resources
C. enhances security between user groups
D. provides additional redundancy at Layer 3
E. allows for routing and forwarding separation
F. improves routing protocol convergence
Answer: BCE

What is the maximum number of routers that each OSPF area (including the backbone) should contain?
A. 30
B. 10
C. 50
D. 60
Answer: C

Which first-hop redundancy protocol that was designed by Cisco allows packet load sharing among groups of redundant routers?
A. GLBP
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. VSS
Answer: A

Private lines make use of which connection type based on cell switching?
A. ATM
B. ISP MPLS VPN
C. VTI
D. VPLS
Answer: A

Which route summarization most efficiently reduces perceived network complexity that is composed of subnetworks ranging from 172.16.20.0/24 to 172.16.36.0/24?
A. 172.16.8.0/21
B. 172.16.8.0/19
C. 172.16.20.0/20
D. 172.16.0.0/18
E. 172.16.20.0/19
Answer: D

Which feature can be used in the Cisco Nexus 7000 to create a snapshot of the current configuration?
A. Cisco FabricPath
B. HSRP
C. Rollback
D. vPC
Answer: C

Port security supports which type of port?
A. SPAN destination port
B. EtherChannel port-channel port
C. Nonnegotiating trunk port
D. DTP-enabled trunk port
Answer: C

Which option prevents the dropping of asymmetrically routed packets in active/active failover paired firewalls?
A. Nothing can be done to prevent this from happening.
B. Configure different policies on both firewalls.
C. Assign similar interfaces on each firewall to the same asymmetric routing group.
D. Assign similar interfaces on each firewall to a different asymmetric routing group.
Answer: C

EIGRP uses which algorithm to build a routing table?
A. Dijkstra's algorithm
B. Floyd-Warshall algorithm
C. Diffusing Update Algorithm
D. Johnson's algorithm
Answer: C


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HCNP-R&S Fast Track H12-224-ENU dumps

2017-10-11 15:28:38 | 日記
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Share some HCNP-R&S H12-224-ENU exam questions and answers below.
Which of the following NAT functions are supported by the Eudemon?
A. NAT/PAT
B. NAT ALG
C. Bidirectional NAT
D. NAT server
Answer: ABCD

Which of the following technologies does the Eudemon use to defense against Anti-DDoS attacks?
A. TCP agent
B. Source authentication and detection
C. Standard protocol stack identification
D. Fingerprint identification (characteristics detection)
E. Abnormal session detection
F. Traffic control
Answer: ABCDEF

The firewall can be working in routing mode, transparent mode, or composite mode. The default mode is the composite mode.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Which of the following solutions effectively defend against ARP attacks?
A. Binding a MAC address and an IP address
B. Enabling the ARP attack protection function on a Huawei switching device
C. Adding network segments to different VLANs on a switch
D. Enabling IP packet filtering
Answer: ABC

Which of the following data traffic is incoming data traffic on the Eudemon?
A. Data traffic from a Trust zone to a demilitarized zone (DMZ)
B. Data traffic from an Untrust zone to a DMZ
C. Data traffic from a Local zone to a Trust zone
D. Data traffic from an Untrust zone to a Local zone
Answer: BD

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Master in VRRP?
A. The router with highest priority will become Master.
B. The router with smallest priority will become Slave.
C. The router with highest priority may not always be Master.
D. The router with smallest priority may not always be Slave.
Answer: CD

Assume that the trace route test is used to detect the packet forwarding path and tracert packets have passed through the firewall.
Which of the following attack protection functions needs to be disabled to normally display the tracert result?
A. ICMP-redirect
B. ICMP-unreachable
C. Tracert
D. Smurf
Answer: C

To process fragmented service packets on an NAT-enabled firewall which of the following functions needs to be enabled?
A. Transparent fragment transmission
B. Fragment cache
C. Fragment reassembly
D. MTU check
Answer: B

What is the maximum bits of a Class C address can be used for subnet?
A.6
B.8
C.12
D.14
Answer: A

Which of the following statements are correct regarding priority in VRRP?
A. The IP address owner always uses 255 as its priority regardless its config priority.
B. The IP address owner always uses o as its priority regardless its config priority.
C. We can configure the priority as o to make the router never attend the Master election.
D. If a VRRP router changes from Master to Slave, it will send out a VRRP message with priority o in the network.
Answer: A

Which of the following authentication modes does VRRP use?
A. No authentication
B. Simple text password
C. MD5
D. CHAP
Answer: ABC

The Eudemon supports load balancing between multiple uplinks.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Besides an IPv4 address, a router distinguisher (RD) also contains a flag that distinguishes IP routes to the same destination IP address in different VPNs.
How many bits are there in the flag?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C

When an Eudemon is working in composite mode, some of its interfaces are configured with lP addresses (Layer 3 interfaces) and the other interfaces are not configured with IP addresses (Layer 2 interfaces) .
To enable dual-system hot backup on an Eudemon, you can configure the Eudemon to work in composite mode.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Which of the following statements about the security policies for the Eudemon are true?
A. By default, a user in the Local zone can access other zones.
B. By default, a user in the Trust zone can access the DMZ.
C. By default, a user in the Untrust zone cannot access the Trust zone.
D. By default, a user in a zone of the firewall cannot access any other zone of the firewall.
Answer: CD

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Citrix NetScaler 12 1Y0-240 dumps

2017-10-10 13:21:32 | 日記
The 1Y0-240 exam was developed to measure the minimum knowledge and skills required to implement Citrix NetScaler 12 solutions. Passing this exam means a candidate demonstrated the minimum requisite knowledge and skills required of Citrix networking professionals who can install, configure and/or operate NetScaler 12 in enterprise environments.

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300-165 DCII CCNP Data Center dumps

2017-10-10 11:49:18 | 日記
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Share some CCNP Data Center 300-165 exam questions and answers below.
Which of the following Cisco Nexus features is best managed with DCNM-LAN?
A. VSS
B. Domain parameters
C. Virtual switches
D. AAA
Answer: C


Which Cisco Nexus feature is best managed with DCNM-SAN?
A. VSS
B. domain parameters
C. virtual switches
D. AAA
Answer: B


Which statement about implementation of Cisco TrustSec on Cisco Nexus 5546 or 5548 switches are true?
A. Cisco TrustSec support varies depending on Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch model.
B. The hardware is not able to support MACsec switch-port-level encryption based on IEEE 802.1AE.
C. The maximum number of RBACL TCAM user configurable entries is 128k.
D. The SGT Exchange Protocol must use the management (mgmt 0) interface.
Answer: B


Which statement explains why a Cisco UCS 6200 Fabric Interconnect that is configured in end-host mode is beneficial to the unified fabric network?
A. There is support for multiple (power of 2) uplinks.
B. Upstream Layer 2 disjoint networks will remain separated.
C. The 6200 can connect directly via vPC to a Layer 3 aggregation device.
D. STP is not required on the uplink ports from the 6200.
Answer: D


Which statement about SNMP support on Cisco Nexus switches is true?
A. Cisco NX-OS only supports SNMP over IPv4.
B. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per VDC.
C. SNMP is not VRF-aware.
D. SNMP requires the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG license.
E. Only users belonging to the network operator RBAC role can assign SNMP groups.
Answer: B


Which statement is true if password-strength checking is enabled?
A. Short, easy-to-decipher passwords will be rejected.
B. The strength of existing passwords will be checked.
C. Special characters, such as the dollar sign ($) or the percent sign (%), will not be allowed.
D. Passwords become case-sensitive.
Answer: A


Which option is a restriction of the unified ports on the Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnect when connecting to the unified fabric network?
A. Direct FC connections are not supported to Cisco MDS switches
B. The FCoE or Fibre Channel port allocations must be contiguous on the 6200.
C. 10-G Fibre Channel ports only use SFP+ interfaces.
D. vPC is not supported on the Ethernet ports.
Answer: B


Which statement explains why a Cisco UCS 6200 Fabric Interconnect that is configured in end-host mode is beneficial to the unified fabric network?
A. There is support for multiple (power of 2) uplinks.
B. Upstream Layer 2 disjoint networks will remain separated.
C. The 6200 can connect directly via vPC to a Layer 3 aggregation device.
D. STP is not required on the uplink ports from the 6200.
Answer: D

Which GLBP load-balancing algorithm ensures that a client is always mapped to the same VMAC address?
A. vmac-weighted
B. dedicated-vmac-mode
C. shortest-path and weighting
D. host-dependent
Answer: D

After enabling strong, reversible 128-bit Advanced Encryption Standard password type-6 encryption on a Cisco Nexus 7000, which command would convert existing plain or weakly encrypted passwords to type-6 encrypted passwords?
A. switch# key config-key ascii
B. switch(config)# feature password encryption aes
C. switch# encryption re-encrypt obfuscated
D. switch# encryption decrypt type6
Answer: C



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