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Which two capabilities are true for Writable Volumes? (Choose two.)
A. They can be used to enable users to install their own applications.
B. They can be used to store local profile information.
C. They can be used with RDS session hosts.
D. They can be connected to more than one virtual machine at the same time.
Answer: A,B

An administrator is creating an instant clone pool. During the Add pool wizard process, the Administrator gets to the vCenter Server page, selects “Instant Clones” and notices that the “Next” button is grayed out. What is the cause?
A. The administrator must open PowerCLI, issue the cmdletmkfs –t ext3 /“My Folder”/”My Disks”to add additional space.
B. The VMware View Connection Server service is halted and must be restarted.
C. The administrator does not have sufficient privileges.
D. In the wizard, the Administrator must click on the desired vCenter server in the vCenter Server section.
Answer: D

To use PCoIP with a physical machine, what must be installed on the machine?
A. Nvidia K2 Grid card
B. Teradici hardware card
C. Unidesk agent software
D. Wireless network card
Answer: B

Where can an administrator verify that the vSphere Infrastructure version will support the latest version of View?
A. Known Issues list for Horizon 7
B. VMware Hardware Compatibility List
C. VMware Product Interoperability Matrixes
D. Release Notes for Horizon 7
Answer: B

When configuring a Microsoft Windows 2012 R2 virtual machine as a single-session View desktop, what Microsoft Windows role or feature must be installed to access the desktop using HTML?
A. Remote Access
B. Desktop Experience
C. Hyper-V
D. Web Server (IIS)
Answer: C

Which two operating systems are supported when creating a master image for instant clones? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Windows Server 2012 R2
B. Microsoft Windows 8.1
C. Microsoft Windows 10
D. Microsoft Windows 7
Answer: C,D

Which device section contains a VMware Mirage endpoint that could be centralized utilizing Wake-on-LAN?
A. Assigned Devices
B. Rejected Devices
C. Problematic Devices
D. Pending Devices
Answer: D

What task is a prerequisite before installing View Composer?
A. Configure an SSL Certificate for View Composer that is signed by a Certificate Authority (CA).
B. Enable TLSv1.0 security protocol.
C. Create a database and data source name (DSN).
D. Pair the connection server with the security server.
Answer: C

After creating a new desktop pool that contains customization specifications, the administrator sees the following message in the VMware Horizon event database:
Provisioning error occurred for Machine Machine_Name: Customization failed for Machine
What are the two most likely causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The administrator does not have sufficient permissions to access the customization specification.
B. Desktops can only be customized after the end user logs into the virtual machine.
C. The customization specification has been renamed or deleted.
D. Desktop pool provisioning is disabled.
Answer: C,D

When troubleshooting issues with the View Agent, which tool can be used to generate a Data Collection Tool (DCT) bundle?
A. msiexec
B. vdmadmin
C. vdmutil
D. lmvutil
Answer: B

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Share some CCDA 200-310 exam questions and answers below.
Which Cisco Wireless LAN Controller interface is used for out-of-band management?
A. service port
B. management port
C. controller port
D. virtual port
Answer: A

OSPF will be used as the IGP within a campus network. Which two things should you consider before deployment? (Choose two.)
A. All areas need to connect back to area 0.
B. The OSPF process number on each router should match.
C. NSSA areas should be used when an area cannot connect directly to area 0.
D. Stub areas should be connected together using virtual links.
E. ECMP may cause undesired results depending on the environment.
Answer: A,E

Which two statements about designing the Data Center Access layer are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address.
B. Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer.
C. Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer.
D. Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access layer.
E. Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent.
Answer: C,E

Which is the North American RIR for IPv4 addresses?
A. RIPE
B. ARIN
C. IANA
D. IEEE
E. APNIC
Answer: B

What phase of Cisco's PPDIOO includes the identification and resolution of issues prior to moving the entire network to production?
A. Optimize
B. Operate
C. Implementation
D. Design
Answer: A

Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. extends the network to remote users
B. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
C. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
D. reduces the number of physical connections
E. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
Answer: D,E

Which two options should be used to achieve fast convergence in an OSPF network? (Choose two.)
A. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
B. fast hellos
C. LSA retransmission interval
D. SPF throttle timers
E. LSA group pacing
Answer: A,B


Which three layers comprise the traditional hierarchical model? (Choose three.)
A. core layer
B. distribution layer
C. access layer
D. aggregation layer
E. network layer
F. Internet layer
Answer: A,B,C

Which RFC defines the IPv6 standard?
A. RFC 1918
B. RFC 2338
C. RFC 2460
D. RFC 2740
Answer: C

Which three series of Cisco wireless controllers support wireless Bidirectional Rate Limiting? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco 2500 Series Wireless Controllers
B. Cisco 5500 Series Wireless Controllers
C. Cisco 5700 Series Wireless Controllers
D. Cisco 7500 Series Wireless Controllers
E. Cisco 8500 Series Wireless Controllers
F. Cisco 7200 Series Wireless Controllers
Answer: B,D,E

Which statement is true concerning the data center distribution (aggregation) layer design?
A. With Layer 3 at the aggregation layer, the physical loops in the topology must still be managed by STP.
B. The boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 must reside in the multilayer switches, independent of any other devices.
C. A mix of both Layer 2 and Layer 3 access isthe most optimal.
D. In a small data center, the aggregation layer can connect directly to the campus core, exchanging IP routes and MAC address tables.
Answer: C

When there is a need for immunity to EMI for connecting locations that are greater than 100 meters apart, which two solutions can be utilized? (Choose two.)
A. multimode fiber
B. Fibre Channel
C. HVDC transmission lines
D. single-mode fiber
E. serial RS-232
F. Gigabit Ethernet 1000BASE-CX
Answer: A,D

Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design?
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.
Answer: B

Which three options are examples of network logical virtualization? (Choose three.)
A. virtual PortChannel
B. virtual machine
C. Virtual Device Context
D. Virtual Switching System
E. virtual device driver
Answer: A,C,D

When considering the three VoIP design models - single site, centralized multisite, and distributed multisite - which question below would help to eliminate one of the options?
A. Will the switches be required to provide inline power?
B. Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise?
C. Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response?
D. Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN?
Answer: D

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Share some CCNP 300-115 exam questions and answers below.
Which technique allows specific VLANs to be strictly permitted by the administrator?
A. VTP pruning
B. transparent bridging
C. trunk allowed VLANs
D. VLAN access-list
E. L2P tunneling
Answer: C


In a Cisco switch, what is the default period of time after which a MAC address ages out and is discarded?
A. 100 seconds
B. 180 seconds
C. 300 seconds
D. 600 seconds
Answer: C


If a network engineer applies the command mac-address-table notification mac-move on a Cisco switch port, when is a syslog message generated?
A. A MAC address or host moves between different switch ports.
B. A new MAC address is added to the content-addressable memory.
C. A new MAC address is removed from the content-addressable memory.
D. More than 64 MAC addresses are added to the content-addressable memory.
Answer: A


An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server.
What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Answer: E


A network engineer must set the load balance method on an existing port channel.
Which action must be done to apply a new load balancing method?
A. Configure the new load balancing method using port-channel load-balance.
B. Adjust the switch SDM back to "default".
C. Ensure that IP CEF is enabled globally to support all load balancing methods.
D. Upgrade the PFC to support the latest load balancing methods.
Answer: A


Which feature is automatically configured when an administrator enables a voice VLAN?
A: 802.1Q trunking
B: PortFast
C: QoS
D: private VLANs
Answer: B

Which option is a possible cause for an errdisabled interface?
A. routing loop
B. cable unplugged
C. STP loop guard
D. security violation
Answer: D


A network engineer has just deployed a non-Cisco device in the network and wants to get information about it from a connected device. Cisco Discovery Protocol is not supported, so the open standard protocol must be configured.
Which protocol does the network engineer configure on both devices to accomplish this?
A. IRDP
B. LLDP
C. NDP
D. LLTD
Answer: B


Which command does a network engineer use to verify the spanning-tree status for VLAN 10?
A. switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10
B. switch# show spanning-tree bridge
C. switch# show spanning-tree brief
D. switch# show spanning-tree summary
E. switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10 brief
Answer: A


For client server failover purposes, the application server team has indicated that they must not have the standard 30 second delay before their switchport enters a forwarding state. For their disaster recovery feature to operate successfully, they require the switchport to enter a forwarding state immediately.
Which spanning-tree feature satisfies this requirement?
A. Rapid Spanning-Tree
B. Spanning-Tree Timers
C. Spanning-Tree FastPort
D. Spanning-Tree PortFast
E. Spanning-Tree Fast Forward
Answer: D


After UDLD is implemented, a Network Administrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state.
Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?
A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.
Answer: B


A network is running VTPv2. After verifying all VTP settings, the network engineer notices that the new switch is not receiving the list of VLANs from the server.
Which action resolves this problem?
A. Reload the new switch.
B. Restart the VTP process on the new switch.
C. Reload the VTP server.
D. Verify connected trunk ports.
Answer: D


An administrator recently configured all ports for rapid transition using PortFast. After testing, it has been determined that several ports are not transitioning as they should.
What is the reason for this?
A. RSTP has been enabled per interface and not globally.
B. The STP root bridge selection is forcing key ports to remain in non-rapid transitioning mode.
C. STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.
D. The switch does not have the processing power to ensure rapid transition for all ports.
Answer: C


An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel between two switches using LACP. If the EtherChannel mode on switch 1 is configured to active, which two modes on switch 2?establish an operational EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
A: active
B: auto
C: desirable
D: on
E: passive
Answer: A, E

For security reasons, the IT manager has prohibited users from dynamically establishing trunks with their associated upstream switch.
Which two actions can prevent interface trunking? (Choose two.)
A. Configure trunk and access interfaces manually.
B. Disable DTP on a per interface basis.
C. Apply BPDU guard and BPDU filter.
D. Enable switchport block on access ports.
Answer: AB


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Share some ACIS 7750X exam questions and answers below.
You have completed the Avaya_IP_Office_Contact_Center_Configuration.xlsm workbook and are ready to launch the DataImport.exe file.
Which two passwords are required to execute the DataImport.exe successfully? (Choose two.)
A. WebLM administrator password
B. IP Office Security User password
C. IP Office Service User password
D. IPOCC Administrator password
E. IP Office System password
Answer: D,E

When a software component stops working, which IPOCC component tries to get it going again?
A. IP Office
B. Watchdog
C. Chap
D. Kernel
Answer: B


In which section can you enable the ability to change topic names?
A. Service > Telephony Settings
B. System > Reporting Settings
C. System > PBX Settings
D. Service > Special Settings
Answer: A

In which section can you enable the ability to change topic names?
A. Service > Telephony Settings
B. System > Reporting Settings
C. System > PBX Settings
D. Service > Special Settings
Answer: A

What would you use to import IPOCC licenses?
A. IPOCC License Manager
B. WebLM
C. Web Management
D. Manager
Answer: B

You are installing the IPOCC software on a customer provided Windows server and have verified the computer meets all the documented requirements.During the installation of the IPOCC software from the DVD, which password do you need to create?
A. IPOCC Service User password
B. Database System Administrator password
C. IPOCC Administrator password
D. IP Office Service User password
Answer: C

You have successfully deployed an IPOCC server in the customer's virtual environment and have configured the virtual machine to meet the OVA specifications in the Avaya IP Office Contact Center Reference Configuration document.Which two tasks do you need to complete before importing the customer intonation into IPOCC? (Choose two.)
A. Change the IP Office Service User password
B. Upgrade the VMWare Tools on the IPOCC Server to the latest release
C. Configure the Network Settings on the IPOCC Server
D. Change the IPOCC Server Hostname
E. Install the vSphere Client on the IPOCC Server
Answer: B,C

When a software component stops working, which IPOCC component tries to get it going again?
A. IP Office
B. Watchdog
C. Chap
D. Kernel
Answer: B

With respect to IP Office Contact Center Release 9.1.6 and above, which three parameters are not contained in the import excel spreadsheet and must be configured in the User Interface after the import? (Choose three.)
A. Profiles
B. Hold duration time for last agent functionality
C. System holidays
D. Topic block times
E. Custom specific announcements
Answer: B,C,E

What would you use to import IPOCC licenses?
A. IPOCC License Manager
B. WebLM
C. Web Management
D. Manager
Answer: B

You have entered your licenses successfully, and now you want to check you have the correct amount of supervisor licenses for the customer.
Which screen in WebLM will show you this information?
A. CIE View License Capacity
B. CIE View Peak Usage
C. License Install
D. Licensed Product
Answer: C


You have completed the Avaya_IP_Office_Contact_Center_Configuration.xlsm workbook and are ready to launch the DataImport.exe file.Which two passwords are required to execute the DataImport.exe successfully? (Choose two.)
A. WebLM administrator password
B. IP Office Security User password
C. IP Office Service User password
D. IPOCC Administrator password
E. IP Office System password
Answer: D,E

Prior to using the dataimport.exe file, which action should you perform?
A. Import
B. Reboot
C. Backup
D. Activate
Answer: D

Which two statements about Database integration in the IP Office Contact Center are true? (Choose two.)
A. Customers are directed to agents dependent on the agents priority.
B. Customers are directed to agents dependent on the information they input.
C. Customers are directed to agents dependent on time of day.
D. Customers are directedto agents dependent on number they are calling from.
Answer: C,D

Which three preconditions must be met to import the configuration data in the IP Office Contact Center? (Choose three.)
A. The database must beempty
B. The watchdog need to be running
C. The license file must be installed first
D. The postgres database need to be running
Answer: A,B,C

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