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Share some CCNP Data Center 300-180 exam questions and answers below.
Which three are valid tech support bundles to collect in the local management shell? (Choose three.)
A. UCSM
B. UCSM-MGMT
C. Port-Channel
D. Adapter
E. SAN
F. FEX
Answer: A, B, F

Which log file in Cisco UCS Manager contains information about which user took a specific action?
A. user access log
B. system change log
C. audit log
D. access control log
Answer: C

After migrating a server that is configured with dynamic vNICs, Cisco UCS Manager assigns new dynamic vNICs to the server.
If you had been monitoring traffic on an original dynamic vNIC, what must you do when the server comes back up?"
A. Reassign the dynamic vNIC back to the old configuration.
B. Nothing; Cisco UCS Manager will take over.
C. Reassign the service profile back to the master one.
D. Remove and reconfigure the dynamic vNIC.
E. Reassign the monitoring source.
Answer: E

Which of these does not have an FSM associated with it?
A. vCenter connection
B. service profile
C. server hardware
D. service profile templates
Answer: D

The Cisco UCS Manager displays FSM information for which four of these? (Choose four.)
A. which FSM task is being executed
B. the current state of an FSM task
C. the status of the previous FSM task
D. any error codes returned while processing
E. all completed FSM tasks
F. multiple FSM tasks that completed over multiple tries
G. multiple FSM tasks that failed
Answer: A, B, C, D

When using the Cisco UCS Manager GUI to troubleshoot a suspected bad memory, which logs contain data that are related to the faulty DIMM?
A. the System Event log and Faults log that are located under the Admin tab
B. the Events log and Faults log that are located under the Admin tab
C. the System Event log that is located under the Server tab in the Navigation panel and the Faults log that is located under the Admin tab
D. the System Event log that is located under the Equipment tab and the Faults log that is located under the Admin tab
Answer: D

Which four tech support files can you create with the Cisco UCS Manager that you can submit to Cisco TAC for support? (Choose four.)
A. UCSM
B. disk LUNs
C. fabric extender
D. memory
E. rack server
F. chassis
G. server cache
Answer: A, C, E, F

A customer is configuring the dynamic vNIC connection policy in a Cisco UCS domain.
Why is the dynamic vNIC policy required?
A. It is only required if you are configuring VM-FEX.
B. It is only required if you are configuring Adapter-FEX.
C. It is mainly for the Cisco UCS Manager to communicate with the fabric interconnect.
D. It is required for Cisco UCS instances that include servers with VIC adapters on which you have installed VMs and configured dynamic vNICs.
Answer: D

Which three are valid tech support bundles to collect in the local management shell? (Choose three.)
A. UCSM
B. UCSM-MGMT
C. Port-Channel
D. Adapter
E. SAN
F. FEX
Answer: A, B, F

Which piece of information does the FSM provide?
A. the current task and status
B. a collection of blade statistics
C. the last user to access the resource
D. a list of faults currently suppressed by the Cisco UCS Manager
Answer: A

Which four tech support files can you create with the Cisco UCS Manager that you can submit to Cisco TAC for support? (Choose four.)
A. UCSM
B. disk LUNs
C. fabric extender
D. memory
E. rack server
F. chassis
G. server cache
Answer: A, C, E, F

A customer is configuring an upstream disjoint Layer 2 network in a Cisco UCS domain.
So far they have configured the following:
Fabric Interconnects are in switching mode.
There is symmetrical configuration for high availability.
There are no overlapping VLANs.
Each vNIC is communicating with one disjoint Layer 2 network.
After validating the above, the customer is still having issues with network connectivity.
What is the issue?
A. Overlapping VLANs are allowed in a disjoint Layer 2 network.
B. The vNIC configuration is incorrect and must communicate with two or more disjoint layer 2 networks.
C. The fabric interconnect must be in end-host mode for a disjoint Layer 2 network.
D. Asymmetrical configuration for high availability needs to be configured.
Answer: C

In a Cisco UCS environment, what are the three power types in a power policy? (Choose three.)
A. backup
B. grid
C. redund
D. n-plus-1
E. non-redund
F. plus-1
Answer: B, D, E

A customer calls in a trouble ticket complaining of unacceptable read I/O latency on a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server with an LSI MegaRAID 9260-8i with an 8-disk RAID-10 virtual disk.
As you validate the RAID controller configuration, which of these configured items impacts read performance at the controller level?
A. all disks are 146GB 6 Gb SAS 15K RPM SFF
B. read ahead cache is enabled
C. BGI rate = 0
D. strip size = 256k
E. no hot spare
Answer: D

Which commands can you enter to see if a component in the Cisco UCS domain generated a core file?
A. 6100-A# scope monitoring
6100-A /monitoring # scope sysdebug
6100-A /monitoring/sysdebug # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
---------- ---------
B. 6100-A# scope sysdebug
6100-A /sysdebug # scope monitoring
6100-A /sysdebug/monitoring # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
---------- ---------
C. 6100-A# scope system
6100-A /system # scope monitoring
6100-A /system/monitoring # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
---------- ---------
D. 6100-A# scope cores
6100-A /cores # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
---------- ---------
E. 6100-A# scope logging
6100-A /logging # scope monitoring
6100-A /logging/monitoring # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
---------- ---------
Answer: A


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Share some CCNA Security 210-260 exam questions and answers below.
Which two statements about Telnet access to the ASA are true? (Choose two).
A. You may VPN to the lowest security interface to telnet to an inside interface.
B. You must configure an AAA server to enable Telnet.
C. You can access all interfaces on an ASA using Telnet.
D. You must use the command virtual telnet to enable Telnet.
E. Best practice is to disable Telnet and use SSH.
Answer: A,E

Which three statements about host-based IPS are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can view encrypted files.
B. It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS.
C. It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level.
D. It can be deployed at the perimeter.
E. It uses signature-based policies.
F. It works with deployed firewalls.
Answer: A,B,C

What three actions are limitations when running IPS in promiscuous mode? (Choose three.)
A. deny attacker
B. deny packet
C. modify packet
D. request block connection
E. request block host
F. reset TCP connection
Answer: A,B,C

When an IPS detects an attack, which action can the IPS take to prevent the attack from spreading?
A. Deny the connection inline.
B. Perform a Layer 6 reset.
C. Deploy an antimalware system.
D. Enable bypass mode.
Answer: A

Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header
Answer: D, E, F

After reloading a router, you issue the dir command to verify the installation and observe that the image file appears to be missing. For what reason could the image file fail to appear in the dir output?
A. The secure boot-image command is configured.
B. The secure boot-comfit command is configured.
C. The confreg 0x24 command is configured.
D. The reload command was issued from ROMMON.
Answer: A

What are two default Cisco IOS privilege levels? (Choose two.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 7
E. 10
F. 15
Answer: B, F

What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication.
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re-encryption.dis
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.
D. It can protect against single points of failure.
Answer: A

If you change the native VLAN on the trunk port to an unused VLAN, what happens if an attacker attempts a double-tagging attack?
A. The trunk port would go into an error-disabled state.
B. A VLAN hopping attack would be successful.
C. A VLAN hopping attack would be prevented.
D. The attacked VLAN will be pruned.
Answer: C

Which statement about personal firewalls is true?
A. They can protect a system by denying probing requests.
B. They are resilient against kernel attacks.
C. They can protect email messages and private documents in a similar way to a VPN.
D. They can protect the network against attacks.
Answer: A

What type of security support is provided by the Open Web Application Security Project?
A. Education about common Web site vulnerabilities.
B. A Web site security framework.
C. A security discussion forum for Web site developers.
D. Scoring of common vulnerabilities and exposures.
Answer: A

An attacker installs a rogue switch that sends superior BPDUs on your network. What is a possible result of this activity?
A. The switch could offer fake DHCP addresses.
B. The switch could become the root bridge.
C. The switch could be allowed to join the VTP domain.
D. The switch could become a transparent bridge.
Answer: B

Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommend? (Choose two.)
A. AES
B. 3DES
C. DES
D. MD5
E. DH-1024
F. SHA-384
Answer: A,F

In what type of attack does an attacker virtually change a device's burned-in address in an attempt to circumvent access lists and mask the device's true identity?
A. gratuitous ARP
B. ARP poisoning
C. IP spoofing
D. MAC spoofing
Answer: D

Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header
Answer: D,E,F

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Share some CCNP 300-101 exam questions and answers below.
In IPv6, SLAAC provides the ability to address a host based on a network prefix that is advertised from a local network router. How is the prefix advertised?
A. routing table
B. router advertisements
C. routing protocol
D. routing type
Answer: B

Which statement is true?
A. RADIUS uses TCP, and TACACS+ uses UDP.
B. RADIUS encrypts the entire body of the packet.
C. TACACS+ encrypts only the password portion of a packet.
D. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization.
Answer: D

An engineer is configuring a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address on the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface. Which option also is required on the tunnel interface before it is operational?
A. tunnel destination address
B. keepalives
C. IPv6 address
D. tunnel protection
Answer: A

Which two routing protocols are supported by Easy Virtual Network? (Choose two.)
A. RIPv2
B. OSPFv2
C. BGP
D. EIGRP
E. IS-IS
Answer: B,D

A network engineer is considering enabling load balancing with EIGRP. Which consideration should be analyzed?
A. EIGRP allows a maximum of four paths across for load balancing traffic.
B. By default, EIGRP uses a default variance of 2 for load balancing.
C. EIGRP unequal path load balancing can result in routing loops.
D. By default, EIGRP performs equal cost load balancing at least across four equal cost paths.
Answer: D

On which two types of interface is Frame Relay switching supported? (Choose two.)
A. serial interfaces
B. Ethernet interfaces
C. fiber interfaces
D. ISDN interfaces
E. auxiliary interfaces
Answer: A,D

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Share some IBM Certified Deployment Professional C2010-555 exam questions and answers below.
A company has assets at multiple locations that require maintenance There is a requirement to have a single work order with charges rolled up to a single GL account.How can that be achieved?
A. Create a task work order for each asset
B. Create a child work order for each asset
C. Add a job plan that has the assets associated
D. Add the assets in Multiple Assets, Locations and Cis
Answer: B

A company wishes to group its location records into a hierarchy to assist users in searching for asset s. How can this be accomplished?
A. Location Groups can be created and LIVE locations added
B. Locations can be linked by using the Related Records tab in the Locations application.
C. Location records will need to be added to a network and can only include locations with an ACTIVE status.
D. Location records need to be added a system and can only include locations with an OPERATING type.
Answer: D

An administrator has a requirement to create 44 new assets that each share a common configuration
Which application can do this with a single action?
A. Assets
B. item Master
C. Classifications
D. Asset Templates
Answer: D

A vendor requires a payment of 20% of the purchase price when the purchase order (PO) is sent and the company wants to withhold of the payment until 90 days after receiving the item before final payment is made. How would this be accomplished'?
A. A Purchase Requisition would be created and three invoices would) be generated via the invoicing application One invoice tor 20%. one for 60% and one for 20%
B. A Price Contract would be created with a payment schedule with an invoice of 20% at the time the PO is Approved, an invoice of 60% at the time the item is received and another invoice for 20% 90 days after receipt.
C. A Blanket Contract would be created with a payment schedule with an invoice of 20% at the time the PO is Approved, an invoice of 60% at the time the item is received and another invoice for 20% 90 days after receipt
D. A Purchase Contract would be created with a payment schedule with an invoice of 20% at the time the PO is Approved, an invoice of 60% at the time the item is received and another invoice for 20% 90 days after receipt
Answer: D

A company has assets at multiple locations that require maintenance There is a requirement to have a single work order with charges rolled up to a single GL account.
How can that be achieved?
A. Create a task work order for each asset
B. Create a child work order for each asset
C. Add a job plan that has the assets associated
D. Add the assets in Multiple Assets, Locations and Cis
Answer: B

A company has a requirement to report on actual labor hours, materials, services and tools used as work progresses on a work order. What is the earliest point in the basic life cycle a user can start reporting?
A.APPR
B. COMP
C. WMATL
D. WAPPR
Answer: A

A user belongs to two non-independent security groups, Group A and Group B Group A has a purchasing limit of 37000 and Group B has a purchasing limit of $8000.
What is the purchasing limit of a user who belongs to both security groups?
A. $7000
B. $8000
C. $15000
D. $56000
Answer: B

What costing method should be used if the receipt cost of items that are the newest in stock is required?
A. LIFO
B. FIFO
C. Average
D. Standard
Answer: A

A vendor requires a payment of 20% of the purchase price when the purchase order (PO) is sent and the company wants to withhold of the payment until 90 days after receiving the item before final payment is made.
How would this be accomplished'?
A. A Purchase Requisition would be created and three invoices would) be generated via the invoicing application One invoice tor 20%. one for 60% and one for 20%
B. A Price Contract would be created with a payment schedule with an invoice of 20% at the time the PO is Approved, an invoice of 60% at the time the item is received and another invoice for 20% 90 days after receipt.
C. A Blanket Contract would be created with a payment schedule with an invoice of 20% at the time the PO is Approved, an invoice of 60% at the time the item is received and another invoice for 20% 90 days after receipt
D. A Purchase Contract would be created with a payment schedule with an invoice of 20% at the time the PO is Approved, an invoice of 60% at the time the item is received and another invoice for 20% 90 days after receipt
Answer: D

A company wishes to group its location records into a hierarchy to assist users in searching for asset s.
How can this be accomplished?
A. Location Groups can be created and LIVE locations added
B. Locations can be linked by using the Related Records tab in the Locations application.
C. Location records will need to be added to a network and can only include locations with an ACTIVE status.
D. Location records need to be added a system and can only include locations with an OPERATING type.
Answer: D

An administrator has a requirement to create 44 new assets that each share a common configuration Which application can do this with a single action?
A. Assets
B. item Master
C. Classifications
D. Asset Templates
Answer: D

Which report option provides multiple access points for an end user to run reports including the tool bar shortcuts of Browser View, Direct Print. Direct Print with Attachments and direct access from application dialogs including Work Order Status Change and Inventory Reorder?
A. ERI BIRT
B. Cognos
C. SQL
D. Server
Answer: B

A company is training on the use of the material status fields on work orders. What are the possible status values available for these fields?
A. WMATL, AVAIL, NONE
B. COMP, NONE, PARTIAL
C. ONORDER, PAVAIL, READY
D. AVAIL. NOTAVAIL, PARTAVAIL
Answer: B

An approved work order has been assigned an incorrect job plan. How do you correct this?
A. Change the Job Plan Revision to the correct revision
B. Clear the Job Plan field and enter the correct job plan
C. Create a Follow-up work order with the correct job plan.
D. Select Remove Work Plan from the More Actions menu and enter the correct job plan.
Answer: D

A custom field has been added to the Work Order Tracking application to identify the inspector for environmental impacts of each work order. What type of role is used to assign the work order to the environmental inspector?
A. Person
B. Person Group
C. A set of data related to the record
D. A set of data related to the login user
Answer: A


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