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Share some CCA-V 1Y0-202 exam questions and answers below.
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator installed AutoCAD 2014 on a vDisk image and asked users to test the application. Users are reporting that the application is NOT available on their Desktop OS machines. The administrator started a test machine and verified that the application is there.What should the administrator do to allow the users to see the application?
A. Promote the vDisk.
B. Restart the target devices.
C. Change the vDisk access mode to Private.
D. Change the target device type to Production.
Answer: B

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator creates a new Desktop OS machine master image for the Marketing team. The administrator attempts to provision 25 Desktop OS machines using Machine Creation Services, but the process fails.Which component must the administrator install to resolve the desktop provisioning failure?
A. Citrix Scout
B. Hypervisor tools
C. Virtual Delivery Agent
D. End User Experience Monitor
Answer: C

Scenario: An application that renders locally and creates a large number of temporary files on the local drive is installed on the Desktop OS machines. A Citrix Administrator creates a vDisk in Private mode with this application installed. The administrator is in the process of updating a vDisk from Private mode to Standard mode and needs to determine the write cache type.Which cache type would provide the best performance?
A. Cache on server
B. Cache on device hard drive
C. Cache on device hard drive encrypted
D. Cache in device RAM with overflow on hard disk
Answer: D

Scenario: Newly hired employees report they are NOT able to connect to their Desktop OS machines. Some of the employees have provided screenshots that show an error message indicating that no license is available. The license console shows that all device/user licenses have been allocated. Three weeks ago the company sold a subsidiary, freeing up 100 licenses, so the IT team is certain that licenses are available.Which command-line interface utility should a Citrix Administrator use to address this issue?
A. lmdiag.exe
B. lmdown.exe
C. udadmin.exe
D. lmadmin.exe
Answer: C

A Citrix Administrator must limit the Helpdesk team supporting Human Resources (HR) to only manage and view resources for the HR department.Which two steps must the administrator complete within Citrix Studio to meet the requirements of the scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Apply the custom filter to the HR Helpdesk team.
B. Remove all current roles for the HR Helpdesk team.
C. Remove all current scopes for the HR Helpdesk team.
D. Create a new custom role and link it to the HR Helpdesk team.
E. Create a new custom scope and link it to the HR Helpdesk team.
Answer: C, E

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator updates all of the machines within a Delivery Group. After the update, an application stops working. The IT manager tells the administrator to revert all machines to the previous image.How should the administrator revert all machines to the previous image?
A. By selecting 'Rollback machine update' for the Delivery Group
B. By deleting the snapshot associated with the template virtual machine
C. By selecting 'Rollback machine update' for the Session Machine Catalog
D. By deleting the difference disks of the virtual machines within the Delivery Group
Answer: C

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configures a profile management policy in Citrix Studio for the members of a particular organizational unit (OU). The administrator must verify that the filter is applied correctly to the newly created policy.How could the administrator verify that the filter is correctly applied?
A. Using the Modeling Wizard
B. Using a Policy Template Comparison
C. Running rsop.msc on the Delivery Controller
D. Running gpresult /v from the command line
Answer: A

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to add a new application to an existing XenDesktop Delivery Group. The application must only be available to the Human Resources (HR) user group.How could the administrator meet the requirements of the scenario?
A. By creating a new Group Policy Object and setting security to the HR user group
B. By editing the application in Citrix Studio and limiting the visibility to the HR user group
C. By creating a new Citrix HDX Policy in Citrix Studio and filtering the policy to allow access to the HR user group only
D. By creating a new application folder in Citrix Studio for the HR user group and moving the application to the new folder
Answer: B

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator must provide a new application to 50 users and wants to use the most cost-effective application delivery method. These users perform well-defined tasks and do NOT require personalization or offline access to applications.What type of application delivery method should the administrator consider?
A. Persistent virtual desktops
B. Hosted Server OS machine
C. Virtual machine hosted apps
D. Locally streamed virtual hard disk
Answer: B

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has deployed 2000 Desktop OS machines in a call center environment. The call center is segmented into three shifts that span the full 24-hour day. The Desktop OS machines are deployed as non-persistent Desktop OS machines with Provisioning Services. The administrator needs to increase the RAM allocated to each Desktop OS machine by 1 GB.What should the administrator do to add the memory to each Desktop OS machine in this environment?
A. Increase the memory of the Master Target Device inside the Provisioning Services Console.
B. Use PowerShell cmdlets on the Delivery Controller to set the Desktop OS machine settings for a specific Machine Catalog.
C. Update the template in the hosting infrastructure. In Citrix Studio, select the Machine Catalogs node, select the machine catalog in the results pane, and click Update Machine.
D. Create new virtual machines with the XenDeskop Setup Wizard using the updated hosting template. Once all Delivery Groups have been migrated to the new catalog, delete the existing Desktop OS machines.
Answer: D


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Share some CCIE Data Center 400-151 exam questions and answers below.
Which option isthe advantage of Cisco ACE SSL Offload?
A. Export cipher suite
B. Decentralized certificate management
C. SSL encryption only
D. Front-end SSL
Answer: D

Refer to the exhibit.



Corporate ABC wants to implement control by allowing authorized virtual machine MAC addresses tosend traffic to the Internet. The administrator wants to add this MAC ACL on Nexus7k-1 to achievethetask
[Configuration Output]
Nexus7k-1:
mac access-list mac-ad
permit 0050.561F.73d30000.00fF.ffff any
!
interface el/1
mac access-group mac-ad
However, this action does not work.
Which two statements describe the issue? (Choose two.)
A. The MAC address and mask do not match.
B. The MAC ACL cannot be applied to egress traffic.
C. This command is wrong to apply this ACL under interface.
D. The sequence number is missingfrom the ACL.
E. The MAC ACL is not supported on Cisco nexus 7000 Series.
Answer: B,C

Which two options are advantages of deploying Ethernet-based FCoE switches such as the CiscoNexus7000 Series Switches beyond the access layer? (Choose two)
A. lower overall throughput compared to native Fibre Channel switches
B. flexibility to support file (NAS) and block (iSCSI and FCoE) storage traffic
C. High-performance Ethernet-based FCoE switches cannot be used in a dedicated SAN core.
D. requirement for traffic isolation with dedicated links and storage VDCs is no longer required.
E. plans that include 40 and 100 Gigabit Ethernet speeds
Answer: B,E

Which protocol is best suited for wireless communication in an IoT deployment where sensors only have a power generating element(and do not have a battery)
A. Bluetooth
B. ZigBee
C. WIFI
D. 3G/4G
Answer: B

Refer to the exhibit.



Whichstatementis nottrue?
A. Network to server unicast traffic is forwarded to the server only if it arrives on the pinned uplinkport.
B. Unknown unicast messages that are received on the uplink interface frame are dropped.
C. Unknown unicast messages that arereceived on the server interface frame are flooded to all theup-links and servers ports in the fabric interconnect where the packets are received.
D. Broadcast messages that are received on server interface are flooded to server links and pinnedport.
Answer: C

Which two Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders support FCoE? (Choose two.)
A. 2248TP
B. 2232ET-P
C. 2224TP
D.2232PP
E. 2232TM-E
Answer: D, E

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the term of the Cisco Prime Service Catalog from the left column onto the correctdefinitionon the right.



Answer:




DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the method from the left onto thecorrect description on the right.



Answer:




Refer to the exhibit.



Which statement about this command sequence when it is performed on a Cisco Nexus 5500 chassisistrue?
A. All VLANs except the FCoE VLAN are shut down on the interface.
B. You must add the VLAN number to the shutdown command to specify which VLAN is to be shutdown.
C. There is no shutdown ian command.
D. The interface is shut down and all traffic stops.
E. The VLAN for FCoE traffic is shut down and FCoE traffic stops.
Answer: A

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the correct port security configuration on the left to the correct action on the right.



Answer:




Which statement about VTP bombing is true?
A. It occurs when a client connects to a switch and launches a distributed denial of service attackagainstthe VTP domain. This attack is possible only if the client knows the VTP password.
B. It occurs when a server with a higher revision number and a wrong VTP database is inserted intotheVTP domain. This situation may occur when a new switch is plugged into a stable VTP domain.
The incorrect database is propagated to the domain and the earlier stable database is overwritten.
C. It occurs because of configuration mismatch on VTFV3 switches. This problem can be avoidedusing aconfirmation management tool.
D. It occurs when switches with different VTP versions are connected together. This situation mayoccurwhen a new switch is plugged into a stable VTP domain. The MACaddress table of the newswitchoverrides the MAC address table of stable switches causing interruption of service.
Answer: B

Refer to the exhibit
Which outcome of this configuration is true
A. All traffic ceases to flow through this fabric interconnect after a reboot
B. Servers ceases to use this fabric interconnect upon next reboot
C. Any newly created traffic flows do not use this fabric interconnect
D. All traffic ceases to flows through this fabric interconnect
Answer: D

Refer to me exhibit.



Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN segregation should be configured in Cisco UCS using VLAN Manager.
B. VLAN segregation should be configured in Cisco UCS using PVLANs.
a. when I hear segregation I think PVLANS
C. The Fabric Feature cannot be used in this topology under any circumstances.
D. Service profiles should contain a single vNIC per fabric, trunking VLAN 100-250.
a. Not sure about a single vNIC but the other option says two NICS and service profiles use vNICS.
Also you can configure multiple vlans per VNIC and enable fabric failover for the redundancy.
E. service profiles should contain two NICs per fabric, with one trunking VLAN 100-150 and anothertrunking VLAN 200-250.
F. VLAN segregation should be configured in Cisco UCS using pin groups.
Answer: B,D

Which threePVLAN port modes are supported on Cisco Nexus 9000? (Choose threE.)
A. port channels
B. isolated host trunk
C. FEX port
D. virtual port channels
E. isolated host
F. community host
Answer: BEF

DRAG DROP
An admin is updating an existing Cisco UCS environment to accommodate a new storage array thatwillbe directly attached to the Cisco UCS.
Unmanaged servers external to the Cisco UCS fabric interconnects will also access the new arrayexisting Cisco UCS service profileswill be used to access the new storage array.
Drag and drop the appropriate stepsfrom left into the correct order on the right to migrate the CiscoUCSto support the new storage array.



Answer:




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Share some IBM Certified Technical Sales Specialist C9010-262 exam questions and answers below.
Which interface supports connectivity between the POWER8 processor and the accelerator on the S824L?
A. PCI-Express
B. RoCE
C. RDMA
D. Infiniband
Answer: A

Which component of IBM Cloud Manager with OpenStack allows clients to automate how they build, deploy, and manage their infrastructure?
A. Chef
B. Nova
C. Neutron
D. Cinder
Answer: A

Which component of IBM Cloud Manager with OpenStack allows clients to automate how they build, deploy, and manage their infrastructure?
A. Chef
B. Nova
C. Neutron
D. Cinder
Answer: A

Which of the following is true for an IBM Power Enterprise processor pool?
A. The master HMC is defined using an client-created XML file which lists serial number of each Enterprise Pool Participate (EPP).
B. A server is deleted from, or added to, the pool when the client creates a new XML file.
C. Multiple physical sites are supported, but each site must have right to access to the master HMC.
D. The master HMC and backup master HMC can be concurrently assigning activations and resources to servers in the pool.
Answer: C

A customer is purchasing a new POWER8 Server and will make a choice between PowerVM and PowerKVM.
What is an advantage of PowerVM over PowerKVM?
A. Memory Deduplication
B. NPIV support
C. MR-IOV support
D. Micro Threading
Answer: B

A client would like to automate provisioning of new virtual machines with an end user self-service interface.
Which of the following will provide that functionality?
A. IBM Cloud Manager with OpenStack
B. PowerVC
C. IBM Platform Resource Scheduler
D. POWER8C
Answer: A

What is the minimum amount of rack space that an 80 core E870, without any I/O drawers, will take up in a 19 inch rack?
A. 8U
B. 10U
C. 22U
D. 12U
Answer: D

A customer decided to install an IBM i LPAR on an E870, which hosts AIX and VIOS partitions. The server does not contain a DVD Unit (#5771).
What is the least expensive option to install an IBM i operating system?
A. Install an IBM i partition using the existing NIM server.
B. Use the internal tape device to load IBM i.
C. Configure a vSCSI adapter and use the Virtual Media Repository.
D. Attach an external DVD drive via the USB port in front of the System Control Unit
Answer: C

A customer has older generations of Power servers that they want to manage with their E870 server from the same 7042-CR8 HMC running V8R8.2.0.
What is the earliest Power server generation that is supported with this HMC level?
A. POWER6
B. POWER7
C. POWER4
D. POWER5
Answer: A

What P0WER8 enhancement provides greater RAS compared to prior generations of Power Systems?
A. First Failure Data Capture
B. Spare data lane on each fabric bus
C. Larger L3 memory cache modules
D. Redundant system clocks
Answer: B

A retail customer has implemented the following at each store location:
• A Linux-based POS9 (Point of Sale) application
• A data collection application on an x86 system
• An additional S822L running data analytics
The customer wants to consolidate to a single system in each store. They prefer the POWER platform, but stated concern about the data structure of the POS systems.
What can be presented to the customer to minimize this concern?
A. The ability of Power Systems to support little-Endian and big-Endian Linux instances on the same server.
B. The memory system of Power Servers is Endian neutral.
C. The POS system can be re-compiled to support the big-Endian structure needed by the analytics application.
D. PowerKVM enables Endian neutrality.
Answer: A

Comparing an Oracle Exadata to an E870, what advantage does an E870 have when compared to the Exadata?
A. E870 supports the Oracle 12c database.
B. E870 provides an ability to add cores and memory in a more granular manner.
C. E870 provides more cores for greater scaling.
D. E870 adds support for external storage.
Answer: B

Which E870/E880 products can add value to a POWER8 solution with IBM Cloud Orchestrator?
A. ATS
B. PowerCare
C. IBM Cloud Manager with OpenStack
D. Linux
Answer: C

Which E870/E880 products can add value to a POWER8 solution with IBM Cloud Orchestrator?
A. ATS
B. PowerCare
C. IBM Cloud Manager with OpenStack
D. Linux
Answer: B

A customer wants to use SAS drives for dual VIOS boot on their E880 running AIX.
Which option will support their requirement?
A. CAPI attached flash.
B. EXP24S with at least two disks.
C. Split backplane option with at least two SAS disks.
D. FCoE and DS3000 with at least two disks.
Answer: B

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Share some Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions 70-533 exam questions and answers below.
You administer an Azure Web Site named contoso. The development team has implemented changes to the website that need to be validated.
You need to validate and deploy the changes with minimum downtime to users.
What should you do first?
A. Create a new Linked Resource.
B. Configure Remote Debugging on contoso.
C. Create a new website named contosoStaging.
D. Create a deployment slot named contosoStaging.
E. Back up the contoso website to a deployment slot.
Answer: D


You manage an application deployed to virtual machines (VMs) on an Azure virtual network named corpVnet1.
You plan to hire several remote employees who will need access to the application on corpVnet1.
You need to ensure that new employees can access corpVnet1. You want to achieve this goal by using the most cost effective solution.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a VPN subnet.
B. Enable point-to-point connectivity for corpVnet1.
C. Enable point-to-site connectivity for corpVnet1.
D. Create a gateway subnet.
E. Enable site-to-site connectivity for corpVnet1.
F. Convert corpVnet1 to a regional virtual network.
Answer: C,D


HOTSPOT
You create a virtual network named fabVNet01.
You design the virtual network to include two subnets, one named DNS-subnet and one named Apps-subnet, as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibits button.)



In the table below, identify the number of IP addresses that will be available for virtual machines (VMs) or cloud services in each subnet. Make only one selection in each column.



Answer:





You manage a cloud service that supports features hosted by two instances of an Azure virtual machine (VM).
You discover that occasional outages cause your service to fail.
You need to minimize the impact of outages to your cloud service.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Deploy a third instance of the VM.
B. Configure Load Balancing on the VMs.
C. Redeploy the VMs to belong to an Affinity Group.
D. Configure the VMs to belong to an Availability Set.
Answer: B,D


Your company has two cloud services named CS01 and CS02. You create a virtual machine (VM) in CS02 named Accounts.
You need to ensure that users in CS01 can access the Accounts VM by using port 8080.
What should you do?
A. Create a firewall rule.
B. Configure load balancing.
C. Configure port redirection.
D. Configure port forwarding.
E. Create an end point.
Answer: E


DRAG DROP
You administer an Azure Virtual Machine (VM) named CON-CL1. CON-CL1 is in a cloud service named ContosoService1. You discover unauthorized traffic to CON-CL1.
You need to:
- Create a rule to limit access to CON-CL1.
- Ensure that the new rule has the highest precedence.
Which Azure Power Shell cmdlets and values should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate cmdlet or value to the correct location in the Power Shell command. Each cmdlet or value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bat between panes or scroll to view content.



Answer:





You plan to use Password Sync on your DirSync Server with Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) on your company network. You configure the DirSync server and complete an initial synchronization of the users.Several remote users are unable to log in to Office 365. You discover multiple event log entries for "Event ID 611 Password synchronization failed for domain."You need to resolve the password synchronization issue.Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Restart Azure AD Sync Service.
B. Run the Set-FullPasswordSync Power Shell cmdlet.
C. Force a manual synchronization on the DirSync server.
D. Add the DirSync service account to the Schema Admins domain group.
Answer: A,B

HOTSPOT
You manage an Azure Web Site named contosoweb.
Some users report that they receive the following error when they access contosoweb:
¡°http Status 500.0 - Internal Server Error.¡±
You need to view detailed diagnostic information in XML format.
Which option should you enable? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.



Answer:





You administer an Azure subscription with an existing cloud service named contosocloudservice. Contosocloudservice contains a set of related virtual machines (VMs) named ContosoDC, ContosoSQL and ContosoWeb1.
You want to provision a new VM within contosocloudservice.
You need to use the latest gallery image to create a new Windows Server 2012 R2 VM that has a target IOPS of 500 for any provisioned disks.
Which PowerShell command should you use?



A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D


You manage a cloud service named fabrikamReports that is deployed in an Azure data center.
You deploy a virtual machine (VM) named fabrikamSQL into a virtual network named fabrikamVNet.
FabrikamReports must communicate with fabrikamSQL.
You need to add fabrikam Reports to fabrikamVNet.
Which file should you modify?
A. the network configuration file for fabrikamVNet
B. the service definition file (.csdef) for fabrikamReports
C. the service definition file (.csdef) for fabrikamSQL
D. the service configuration file (.cscfg) for fabrikamReports
E. the service configuration file (.cscfg) fabrikamSQL
Answer: D


You are the administrator for three Azure subscriptions named Dev, Test, and Prod.
Your Azure Power Shell profile is configured with the Dev subscription as the default.
You need to create a new virtual machine in the Test subscription by using the least administrative effort.
Which Power Shell command should you use?



A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A


DRAG DROP
You manage an Azure virtual machine (VM) named AppVM. The application hosted on AppVM continuously writes small files to disk. Recently the usage of applications on AppVM has increased greatly.
You need to improve disk performance on AppVM.
Which Microsoft Azure Power Shell cmdlet should you use with each Power Shell command line? To answer, drag the appropriate Microsoft Azure Power Shell cmdlet to the correct location in the Power Shell code. Each Power Shell cmdlet may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.



Answer:



Explanation
* Set-AzureDataDisk
Sets the host-cache mode on an existing data disk object.
* Example:
This command gets the "MyVM" virtual machine running on the "myservice" cloud service, and then sets the data disk at LUN 2 of the virtual machine to use Nonehost caching.
Windows PowerShell
C:PS>Get-AzureVM "myservice" -name "MyVM" | Set-AzureDataDisk -LUN 2 -HostCachingNone| Update-AzureVM
* Set-AzureDataDisk Parameter: -HostCaching
Sets the host level caching settings of the disk. Possible values are: None, ReadOnly and ReadWrite ().
When you setup a data disk on a virtual machine, you get three host caching choices:
The purpose of a cache is to cache data to be read as reading from a cache is faster than reading from a disk.
There is no performance benefit in caching the log files as these will not be re-read by the application. Therefore, we need the logs to be written directly to disks rather than being written to cache first then disk (Read) or written to the cache only (Read/Write).

Your network includes a legacy application named LegacyApp1. The application only runs in the Microsoft .NET 3.5 Framework on Windows Server 2008.
You plan to deploy to Azure Cloud Services.
You need to ensure that LegacyApp1 will run correctly in the new environment.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Upload a VHD with Windows Server 2008 installed.
B. Deploy LegacyApp1 to a cloud service instance configured with Guest OS Family 2.
C. Deploy LegacyApp1 to a cloud service instance configured with Guest OS Family 1.
D. Deploy LegacyApp1 to a cloud service instance configured with Guest OS Family 3.
Answer: A,B


Your company plans to migrate from On-Premises Exchange to Office 365. The existing directory has numerous service accounts in your On-Premises Windows Active Directory (AD), stored in separate AD Organizational Units (OU) for user accounts.You need to prevent the service accounts in Windows AD from syncing with Azure AD.What should you do?
A. Create an OU filter in the Azure AD Module for Windows PowerShell.
B. Configure directory partitions in miisclient.exe.
C. Set Active Directory ACLs to deny the DirSync Windows AD service account MSOL_AD_SYNC access to the service account OUs.
D. Create an OU filter in the Azure Management Portal.
Answer: B

You manage a cloud service that is running in two small instances. The cloud service hosts a help desk application. The application utilizes a virtual network connection to synchronize data to the company's internal accounting system.
You need to reduce the amount of time required for data synchronization.
What should you do?
A. Configure the servers as large instances and re-deploy.
B. Increase the instance count to three.
C. Deploy the application to Azure Web Sites.
D. Increase the processors allocated to the instances.
Answer: A



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Share some CCNP 300-135 exam questions and answers below.
The tunnel between R1 and R3 is not coming up. Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
(Topology with a GRE tunnel and the outputs provided are show ip int brief and tunnel source and destination)
A. Tunnel source int Eth0/0 is down
B. No route from R1 to R3 loopback0 (tunnel destination)
C. source and destination not in same subnet
D. http://bbs.hh010.com/
Answer: AB

The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. BGP
B. NAT
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security
Answer: C


The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. BGP
B. NAT
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security
Answer: G

How to check MTU of interface using ping? / How can you check the links mtu size with ping command?
A. ping 10.1.1.1 size 1501
B. ping 10.1.1.1 size 1500 df-bit
C. ping 10.1.1.1
D. ping 10.1.1.1 no-size
Answer: B

Two routers are connected through PPP connection. After the PPP was established the admin put OSPF running above it. The OSPF formed adjacency but after soon the adjacency dropped.
What is the reason? (The cause of OSPF forming an adjacency over a GRE tunnel and dropping immediately)
A. MTU does not match
B. Area 0 need to exist for OSPF to function properly
C. Gre tunnel destination is not reachable through tunnel
D. Gre tunnel ip address must be covered by network under ¡°router ospf 1¡±
E. ospf routes contains the route to tunnel destination
Answer: C

What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command.
B. Under the interface Loopback6 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command.
C. Under the interface Serial0/0/0.34 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command.
D. Under ipv6 router ospf 6 configuration enter the redistribute rip RIP_ZONE include-connected command.
Answer: D

What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Under the BGP process,enter the bgp redistribute-internal command
B. Under the BGP process, bgp confederation identifier 65001 command
C. Delete the current BGP process and reenter all of the commands using 65002 as the AS number.
D. Under the BGP process, delete the neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 command enter the neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 command.
Answer: D

What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 configuration enter the ip nat outside command
C. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command
D. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command
Answer: C

What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 configuration enter the ip nat outside command
C. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command
D. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command
Answer: C


The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. BGP
B. NAT
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security
Answer: C

What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration delete the tunnel mode ipv6 command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0.34 configuration enter the ipv6 address 2026::34:1/122 command.
C. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration enter the ip address unnumbered Serial0/0/0.34 command.
D. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration delete the tunnel source Serial0/0/0.34 command and enter the tunnel source 2026::34:1/122 command.
Answer: A

R1 and R2 OSPF neighbor.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
(Output from show ip ospf neighbors on 2 routers, one of them shows FULL/DR, the other FULL/-, you need to know how were they configured and will they exchange routes)
A. They are not neighbors
B. R1 (non-DR) will not update its routes to R2
C. Router R2 is configured with ospf point-to-point command (R2 is the router that shows as FULL/-)
D. They need to be configured as OSPF NBMA
E. R2 should be configured as stub
Answer: BC

Ticket 4 NATACL

TROUBLE TICKET STATEMENT:

The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at 209.65.200.241.After several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 (internet Server).
show run by yourself to obtain the following information:
Configuration on R1
ip nat inside source list nat_pool interface Serial0/0/0/1 overload !
ip access-list standard nat_pool
permit 10.1.0.0
! interface Serial0/0/0/1
ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252
ip nat outside
! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
ip nat inside
ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT
ip ospd authentication message-digest

On Which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
Answer: A


The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. BGP
B. NTP
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security
Answer: A


The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. IPv4 OSPF Routing
D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing
E. IPv4 Route Redistribution
F. IPv6 RIP Routing
G. IPv6 OSPF Routing
H. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability
I. IPv4 layer 3 security
Answer: G


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