MCSA Windows Server 2016 70-740 study guide

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Share some MCSA 70-740 exam questions and answers below.
You deploy a Hyper-V server named Served in an isolated test environment The test environment is prevented from accessing the Internet Server1 runs the Datacenter edition of Windows Server 2016.
You plan to deploy the following guest virtual machines on the server



Which activation model should you use for the virtual machines'?
A. Multiple Activation Key (MAK)
B. Automatic Virtual Machine Activation (AVMA)
C. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) key
D. Key Management Service (KMS)
Answer: B

You have an Active Directory domain named Contoso com The domain contains servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. You install the Remote Access server role on Server1. You install the Network Policy and Access Services server role on Server2. You need to configure Server1 to use Server2 as a RADIUS server.
What should you do?
A. From Routing and Remote Access, configure the authentication provider.
B. From the Connection Manager Administration Kit, create a Connection Manager profile
C. From Server Manager, create an Access Policy.
D. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the Delegation settings of the Server1 computer account.
Answer: A

You have a Hyper-V host named Served That runs Windows Server 2016
Server1 has a virtual machine named VM1 VM1 is configured to run the Docker daemon.
On VM1 you have a container network that uses transparent mode
You need to ensure that containers that run on VM1 can obtain IP addresses from DHCP.
What should you do?
A. On VM1, rundocker network connect
B. On Server1 runGet-VMNetworkAdapter-VMName VM1| Set-VMNetworkAdapter-MacAddressSpoofing On
C. On Server1, rundocker network connect
D. On VM1, runGet-VMNetworkAdapter-VMName VM1| Set-VMNetworkAdapter-MacAddressSpoofing On.
Answer: D

HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1
You enable Response Rate Limiting on Server1.
You need to prevent Response Rate Limiting from applying to hosts that reside on the network of 10.0.0.0/24.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area



Answer:




You have a server named Served that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 will be used as a VPN server. You need to configure Server1 to support VPN Reconnect.
Which VPN protocol should you use?
A. PPTP
B. L2TP
C. SSTP
D. lKEv2
Answer: D

HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory forest The forest contains two sites named Site1 and Site2. Site1 contains 10 domain controllers Site1 and Site2 connect to each other by using a WAN link
You run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard as shown in the following graphic.






Server3 is the only server in Site2
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information graphic.



Answer:




You have a Hyper-V host named Served That runs Windows Server 2016
Server1 has a virtual machine named VM1 VM1 is configured to run the Docker daemon.
On VM1 you have a container network that uses transparent mode
You need to ensure that containers that run on VM1 can obtain IP addresses from DHCP.
What should you do?
A. On VM1, rundocker network connect
B. On Server1 runGet-VMNetworkAdapter-VMName VM1| Set-VMNetworkAdapter-MacAddressSpoofing On
C. On Server1, rundocker network connect
D. On VM1, runGet-VMNetworkAdapter-VMName VM1| Set-VMNetworkAdapter-MacAddressSpoofing On.
Answer: D

You have an Active Directory domain named Contoso com The domain contains servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. You install the Remote Access server role on Server1. You install the Network Policy and Access Services server role on Server2. You need to configure Server1 to use Server2 as a RADIUS server.
What should you do?
A. From Routing and Remote Access, configure the authentication provider.
B. From the Connection Manager Administration Kit, create a Connection Manager profile
C. From Server Manager, create an Access Policy.
D. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the Delegation settings of the Server1 computer account.
Answer: A

You have a server named Served that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 will be used as a VPN server. You need to configure Server1 to support VPN Reconnect.
Which VPN protocol should you use?
A. PPTP
B. L2TP
C. SSTP
D. lKEv2
Answer: D

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 You install the Docker daemon on Server! You need to configure the Docker daemon to accept connections only on TCP port 64500.
What should you do?
A. Run theNew-NetFirewallRulecmdlet
B. Run theSet-ServiceWindows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Edit the daemon.json file.
D. Edit the configuration json file
Answer: C


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Oracle Database 12c 1Z0-061 questions

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Share some Oracle Database 1Z0-061 exam questions and answers below.
View the Exhibit and examine the structures of the employees and departments tables.



You want to update the employees table as follows:
- Update only those employees who work in Boston or Seattle (locations 2900 and 2700).
- Set department_id for these employees to the department_id corresponding to London
(location_id 2100).
- Set the employees' salary in iocation_id 2100 to 1.1 times the average salary of their department.
- Set the employees' commission in iocation_id 2100 to 1.5 times the average commission of their department.
You issue the following command:



What is the outcome?
A. It executes successfully and gives the correct result.
B. It executes successfully but does not give the correct result.
C. It generates an error because a subquery cannot have a join condition in an update statement.
D. It generates an error because multiple columns (SALARY, COMMISSION) cannot be specified together in an update statement.
Answer: B


Which two statements are true regarding subqueries?
A. A subquery can retrieve zero or more rows.
B. Only two subqueries can be placed at one level.
C. A subquery can be used only in SQL query statements.
D. A subquery can appear on either side of a comparison operator.
E. There is no limit on the number of subquery levels in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement.
Answer: A,D


View the Exhibit and examine the description of SALES and PROMOTIONS tables.



You want to delete rows from the sales table, where the PROMO_NAME column in the promotions table has either blowout sale of everyday low prices as values.
Which three delete statements are valid?



A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B,C,D

Examine the data in the CUST_NAME column of the customers table.



You need to display customers' second names where the second name starts with "Mc" or "MC."
Which query gives the required output?



A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the products table.



Using the products table, you issue the following query to generate the names, current list price, and discounted list price for all those products whose list price falls below $10 after a discount of 25% is applied on it.



The query generates an error.
What is the reason for the error?
A. The parenthesis should be added to enclose the entire expression.
B. The double quotation marks should be removed from the column alias.
C. The column alias should be replaced with the expression in the where clause.
D. The column alias should be put in uppercase and enclosed within double quotation marks in the where clause.
Answer: C

Which statement is true regarding the UNION operator?
A. By default, the output is not sorted.
B. Null values are not ignored during duplicate checking.
C. Names of all columns must be identical across all select statements.
D. The number of columns selected in all select statements need not be the same.
Answer: B


You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the following requirements:
1) You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period.
2) The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and subtracted with date data type without using conversion functions.
3) The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days.
4) The interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for. Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?
A. DATE
B. NUMBER
C. TIMESTAMP
D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
Answer: D

View the Exhibit and examine the data in the costs table.



You need to generate a report that displays the IDs of all products in the costs table whose unit price is at least 25% more than the unit cost. The details should be displayed in the descending order of 25% of the unit cost.
You issue the following query:



Which statement is true regarding the above query?
A. It executes and produces the required result.
B. It produces an error because an expression cannot be used in the order by clause.
C. It produces an error because the DESC option cannot be used with an expression in the order by clause.
D. It produces an error because the expression in the ORDER by clause should also be specified in the SELECT clause.
Answer: A

Evaluate the following query:



What would be the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error because flower braces have been used.
B. It produces an error because the data types are not matching.
C. It executes successfully and introduces an 's at the end of each PROMO_NAME in the output.
D. It executes successfully and displays the literal "{'s start date was \} * for each row in the output.
Answer: C


View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the product, component, and PDT_COMP tables.
In product table, PDTNO is the primary key.
In component table, COMPNO is the primary key.
In PDT_COMP table, You want to generate a report listing the product names and their corresponding component names, if the component names and product names exist.
Evaluate the following query:
SQL>SELECT pdtno, pdtname, compno, compname
FROM product _____________ pdt_comp
USING (pdtno) ____________ component USING (compno)
WHERE compname IS NOT NULL;
Which combination of joins used in the blanks in the above query gives the correct output?



A. JOIN; JOIN
B. FULL OUTER JOIN; FULL OUTER JOIN
C. RIGHT OUTER JOIN; LEFT OUTER JOIN
D. LEFT OUTER JOIN; RIGHT OUTER JOIN
Answer: C


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H12-224-ENU HCNP-R&S Fast Track practice test

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What is the maximum bits of a Class C address can be used for subnet?
A.6
B.8
C.12
D.14
Answer: A

The Eudemon generates a blacklist upon detecting an attack.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

In a Land attack, the source address and destination address of an SYN packet are both the IP address of the attacked object or a loopback address.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

In a Land attack, the source address and destination address of an SYN packet are both the IP address of the attacked object or a loopback address .
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

What is the function of the peer ignore command?
A. Deletes a BGP peer.
B. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does not receive the routes sent from the peer.
C. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does not advertise routes to the peer.
D. Retains all configurations of the peer, interrupts the BGP peer relationship with the peer, and clears all related routing information.
Answer: D

Which of the following statements about NAT are true?
A. NAT is short for "network address translation".
B. NAT, also called address proxy, is used for translation between private and public network addresses.
C. Hosts within the intranet can access the extranet without using NAT.
D. NAT can effectively resolve the problem of IP address shortage.
Answer: ABD

Security policies for the firewall are applied to interzones but not to interfaces.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Which statements about OSPF packets are true?
A. Hello packets can be sent after OSPF is enabled on an interface.
B. LS Request packets are sent only after an adjacency is established.
C. LS Update packets contain detailed LSA information for LSDB synchronization.
D. LS Update packets are sent only after an adjacency is established.
Answer: ABC

Which of the following configurations can be performed to implement fast failure detection on a network?
A. Reduce the holdtime of Join/Prune messages.
B. Reduce the interval for an interface to send Hello messages.
C. Set up a PIM BFD session between network segment neighbors.
D. Reduce the interval for sending Join/Prune messages.
Answer: BC

How many user-defined security zones at most are configured on an Eudemon?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: A


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Share some IBM Certified System Administrator C9010-022 exam questions and answers below.
The/usr/sbin/clcmd command is not working as documented in an administrator's reference. How can the administrator determine if the command being run is at the same level as the command being referenced in the documentation?
A. Get the fileset name from Isipp-f, then check the level of the file set with lslpp-1.
B. Use Islpp-wto get the fileset name, then check the level of the file set with lslpp-1.
C. Use lslpp-1 to determine the fileset name and check the level.
D. Use Is-I to determine the last modified date of the command.
Answer: B

Which AIX command will display the virtual SCSI slot number that is the parent of hdisk0?
A. Isdev
B. Iscfg
C. Isattr
D. Ismap
Answer: B

An LPAR is configured with strict logical volume mirroring across two disks for resilience. The administrator would like to ensure if one disk fails the volume group stays online. Which command will ensure that the datavg volume group stays online?
A. varyonvg -n datavg
B. mirrorvg-Q-c 2 datavg
C. mklvcopy -e m -s y (each logical volume name) 2
D. chvg -Qn datavg
Answer: D

In the following figure, what TWO things must be done before an EtherChannel can be created from the ent0 and ent1 adapters?



A. The ent0 and ent1 adapters must be connected to different switches to provide both additional bandwidth and adequate redundancy in the EtherChannel that is created.
B. EtherChannel support capability must be verified for the Ethernet switch.
C. The IP configuration must be removed from en0.
D. The AIX host must be completely disconnected from the network,
E. The en1 interface must be configured with IP information.
Answer: B,C

Which command displays from which disk the operating system was last booted?
A. last
B. bosboot
C. getconf
D. bootlist
Answer: C

The system administrator ran the following command to backup his image repository, but nothing was backed up to the file. Why?
find /media -print | backup -I-f-p /dev/rmt0
A. The block size was not specified.
B. The files in the directoryare larger than 2GB.
C. The tape was not positioned the beginning of the tape.
D. The tape was not formatted.
Answer: B

Solid State Drives (SSDs) have been added to a POWER7 system, and the administrator would like to migrate filesystems with high I/O activity to the SSDs. What TWO options or commands will assist the administrator with identifying filesystem activity?
(Select 2) A. svmon
B. tprof
C. filemon
D. Hot File Detection
E. fileplace
Answer: C,D

Which technology provides the maximum amount of usable storage and resilience for a system with 6 physical volumes?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: C

New change control procedures dictate that system maintenance windows be shown to each user after logging into the system using sshor telnet. Updating which file or files will accomplish this task?
A. The message of the day file
B. The user default attributes file
C. User and admin system alert files
D. The var daily message files
Answer: A

Which command will display the path status of MultiPath I/O (MHO) device hdisk1?
A. Ispath-I hdisk1
B. Ispv-L hdisk1
C. chnlspath-I hdisk1
D. Isdev-Cp hdisk1
Answer: A


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Valid H19-308-ENU HCPA-Storage practice exam

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Share some Huawei Specialist Certification H19-308-ENU exam questions and answers below.
If the customer money is tight, which networking mode can be used when recommending backing up the system?
A.LAN Free
B.LAN Base
C.Server Free
Answer:B

About the user's RAID configuration recommendations, which of the following statements are correct? (Multiple Choice)
A. It is recommended to select 2D+1P, 4D+1P, 8D+1P when configured the RAID3/5
B. RAID6 selection: 2D+2P, 4D+2P, 8D+2P
C. SSD is recommended to configure RAID10
D. SAS and NL-SAS drives are recommended to configure RAID6
Answer: ABCD

On the deduplication compression accelerator card and license, which statement is correct? (Multiple Choice)
A. Deduplication compression accelerator card is a separate accelerator card, not bind with the deduplication compression license, and need the additional procurement
B. Deduplication compression accelerator card is used for deduplication compression features accelerator, you can use or don't use
C. Customers need to support deduplication compression before configuring deduplication compressed license
D. generally from performance considerations, it is recommended after you buy a deduplication compression license, you need to configure deduplication compressed card
Answer: ABCD

Which file shared protocols are supported by the integrated unified storage? (Multiple Choice)
A. NFS
B. SMB 1.0 £¨ CIFS £© /SMB 2.0/2.1/3.0
C. HTTP ¡¢ FTP
D. NDMP
Answer: ABCD

OceanStor V3 snapshots can be read and written.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

The compress/decompress that OceanStor V3's deduplication compression accelerator card supports is:
A. ZLIB
B. GZIP
C. LZ4
D. LZ77
Answer: B

HyperLock is the feature of OceanStor V3 file system WORM, it currently supports the compliance with regulations level protected mode.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

What is the mian advantages of the OceanStor V3 deduplication compression? (Multiple Choice)
A. Deduplication Online
B. After Deduplication
C. Lengthen Deduplication
D. Provide the deduplication compression accelerator card to enhance the system deduplication compression performance
Answer: AD

What is the optional choice of T-Series storage product configuration steps?
A. File Engine
B. array control box
C. hard disk type and quantity
D. Product Type
Answer:A

What value does SmartVirtualization bring to customers?
A. Storage resources on demand to buy, reduce the initial investment
B. Heterogeneous virtualization, integration of mainstream manufacturers equipment storage resources
C. High school low-end unified management, doubling the management efficiency
Answer: B


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