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Which option lists the four possible indicators of relative severity listed from the most to least severe?
A. red, orange, yellow, blue
B. critical, warning, error, info
C. blue, yellow, orange, red
D. info, error, warning, critical
Answer: A

Which option lists the four possible indicators of relative severity listed from the most to least severe?
A. red, orange, yellow, blue
B. critical, warning, error, info
C. blue, yellow, orange, red
D. info, error, warning, critical
Answer: A

Which two statements about Cisco UCS Director default user roles are true? (Choose two.)
A. They allow read-only access to all modules.
B. They reduce system deployment times.
C. They should never be used for security reasons.
D. They are system-defined and available by default.
E. They allow read and write access to all modules.
Answer: B, D

In the storage system, which device represents the root partition by default?
A. sda1
B. sdb1
C. sdc
D. vhd
Answer: A

Which service is required for a functional PXE install environment in Cisco UCS Director Bare Metal Agent?
A. HTTP
B. TFTP
C. DHCP
D. PXE VLAN
Answer: D

Which two Cisco UCS Director roles include Service-End-User creation? (Choose two.)
A. MSP admin
B. group admin
C. IS admin
D: system admin
E: all policy admin
Answer: B, D

Which option describes the main purpose of the stack designers in Cisco Prime Service Catalog?
A. Design the topology to deploy Cisco Prime Service Catalog.
B. Automate IT as a service configurations.
C. Design application as a service.
D. Design VM Services.
Answer: C

Which component of Cisco Prime Service Catalog allows it to communicate with Cisco Process Orchestrator?
A. Administration
B. Service Link
C. Transporter
D. XML Communications Link
Answer: B

Which option lists the orchestration types that can be selected when a user orders an application stack in Cisco Prime Service Catalog?
A. full, partial, none
B. automatic, semi-automatic, limited, none
C. standard service, VIX deployment, puppet, none
D. standard service, special service, automatic service
Answer: C

Which option lists the common cloud characteristics?
A. clustered file system, clustered resources, administrative access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured service
B. on-demand self-service, high performance, shared administration, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured service
C. on-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured service
D. on-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, multipath, measured service
Answer: C

Which setting should be checked if mail setup fails in Cisco UCS Director?
A. Administration / Physical Accounts / Virtual Console Servers
B. Administration / System Task Policy
C. DNS Reverse Lookup for UCSD environment
D. Outgoing SMTP Port
Answer: D

Which option describes when you can log into a secondary user role profile in Cisco UCS Director?
A. as a system default profile
B. through the Administration module by selecting "users", "manage profiles", and then right-click the profile to be used
C. login with username "profile name"
D. using system advanced controls
Answer: C

Which option describes the main purpose of the stack designers in Cisco Prime Service Catalog?
A. Design the topology to deploy Cisco Prime Service Catalog.
B. Automate IT as a service configurations.
C. Design application as a service.
D. Design VM Services.
Answer: C

Which three policies must the administrator configure in Cisco UCS Director before creating a virtual data center? (Choose three.)
A. system policy
B. computing policy
C. network policy
D. user-group policy
E. orchestration policy
F. time policy
Answer: A,B,C

In which two situations can a user be assigned to more than one access profile in Cisco UCS Director? (Choose two.)
A. during user creation
B. if both types of access are appropriate
C. to manage multiple levels of access
D. to be a users default at login
E. to provide access to more than one workflow
Answer: B, C


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Which two Cisco TelePresence systems would be appropriate for an executive personal office? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Jabber
B. Cisco IP Video Phone E20
C. Cisco TelePresence EX Series
D. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence
E. Cisco TelePresence System 500
Answer: C, E

A Unified Communications engineer wants to configure a Cisco TelePresence SX endpoint using static IP addressing to use a different TFTP server.
Which path will allow the engineer to complete this configuration?
A. Network Services > Network 1 > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off
B. Network > TFTP > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off
C. Network Services > TFTP > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off
D. Configuration > System Configuration > Provisioning > Set the External Manager Address
Answer: D

Which two codecs are supported on the Cisco Video Surveillance 6400E IP Camera? (Choose two.)
A. H.263
B. H.264
C. H.265
D. VP8
E. G.711
F. MP3
G. G.729
Answer: B, E

Which encoder is best suited for professional, studio-quality audio and video processing?
A. Scientific Atlanta Encoder
B. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 1000
C. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 2000
D. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 3000
Answer: C

Which two methods are used to navigate the menu options of an auto attendant on an MCU? (Choose two.)
A. KPML
B. DTMF
C. PiP
D. PoP
E. FECC
F. SCCP
Answer: B, E

A Cisco TelePresence Server is operating in locally managed mode. In which two ways can a Cisco EX60 user who is connected to a conference that is hosted on a Cisco TelePresence Server change the screen layout? (Choose two.)
A. using the remote control
B. using DTMF keys 2 and 8
C. using FECC
D. via the Cisco TelePresence server GUI
Answer: B, C

An executive in XYZ Corporation wants to purchase a desktop video endpoint that can be used for conferencing, as well as a monitor when not in a conference.
Which option do you recommend?
A. C20
B. EX90
C. C90
D. SX80
E. MX300 2nd generation
F. Cisco TelePresence Profile Series endpoint
Answer: B

During the initial setup of the Cisco TelePresence System 500, you are required to do an initial camera setup that fails.
What might be a primary reason that the failure occurs?
A. The camera cannot focus on the target.
B. The room is too dark.
C. The system is too far away from the target.
D. The cable to the camera is not connected correctly.
Answer: B

Which three features are supported by Cisco TMSPE? (Choose three.)
A. Simplified provisioning
B. LDAP user import
C. Scheduling via Microsoft Outlook
D. FindMe
E. Jabber for Windows
F. Automatic endpoint upgrades
Answer: A,B,D

In an ISR Cisco Video Management and Storage System, what is the maximum storage capacity allowed per module?
A. 1 TB per module
B. 2 TB per module
C. 3 TB per module
D. 500 MB per module
E. 750 MB per module
F. 850 MB per module
Answer: A

Which video-bridging solution supports single-screen units and multiscreen systems and keeps multiscreen units grouped together logically during a call?
A. Cisco MCU
B. Cisco PVDM
C. Cisco TelePresence Server
D. Cisco TMS
E. Cisco TCS
Answer: C

Which CLI command must be used to configure the network settings on a Cisco TelePresence 4500 MCU?
A. Static A []
B. Network ip
C. Xconfig network address
D. Xconfig network address
Answer: A

Which protocol does the Cisco TelePresence Content Server use for call signaling?
A. MGCP
B. Cisco Proprietary
C. SCCP
D. H.323
Answer: D

Which three features are supported by Cisco TMSPE? (Choose three.)
A. Simplified provisioning
B. LDAP user import
C. Scheduling via Microsoft Outlook
D. FindMe
E. Jabber for Windows
F. Automatic endpoint upgrades
Answer: A, B, D

Management wants to modify Cisco TMS to allow users to configure the call behavior with their
associated devices and dial from a single ID. Which feature needs to be enabled and configured?
A. Smart Scheduler
B. Low-touch Provisioning
C. FindMe
D. CMR Provisioning
Answer: C


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Share some Cisco Specialist 700-260 exam questions and answers below.
Increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality, and increased visibility are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
Answer: C

Upon which component are security solutions directly built in the Cisco future solutions architecture framework?
A. Security intelligence operations
B. Third-party applications
C. Management and intelligence capabilities
D. Cisco security platforms
Answer: D

Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
Answer: A

Which licensing feature enables customers to better manage their software assets and optimize their IT spending?
A. Cisco ONE
B. Smart Accounts
C. Enterprise License Agreements
D. License Bundling
Answer: B

Which Cisco network security solution helps protect against threats by monitoring and responding to any network anomalies, continually analyzing for potential threats and reacting to them in real time?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
C. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
D. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Identity Services Engine
H. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
Answer: D


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Share some Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge 500-265 exam questions and answers below.
Which two business use trends have surfaced in the last five years and require nontraditional security? (Choose two.)
A. BYOD
B. Wi-Fi connections
C. partial URL and application blocking
D. third-party applications
E. web and email attacks
F. a large number of remote employees
Answer: A,F

Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. fragmented solutions
B. the lack of management solutions
C. missing components
D. solutions being pieced together
E. the lack of a cloud solution
F. the lack of a firewall
G. security gaps
Answer: A,D,G

The current Cisco comprehensive framework solutions are divided into which three categories? (Choose three.)
A. Content Security
B. Cloud Security
C. Network Security
D. Access Security
E. Data Center Security
F. Internet Security
G. Advanced Malware Protection
Answer: A,C,D

In the Cisco future solutions architecture framework, the security solutions are directly built upon which component?
A. management and intelligence capabilities
B. Cisco security platforms
C. third-party applications
D. security intelligence operations
Answer: B

Which three values should you use to position Cisco security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. integration
E. flexibility
F. agility
G. scalability
Answer: B,C,E

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Share some CCNA Routing and Switching 200-125 exam questions and answers below.
What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
A. Addresses in a private range will be not routed on the Internet backbone.
B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address in a valid IP address.
D. Several automated methods will be necessary on the private network.
E. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.
Answer: A

What are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose Three.)
A. Recursive routes
B. Directly connected routes
C. Fully specified routes
D. Advertised routes
E. Virtual links
F. Redistributed routes
Answer: ABC

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
Answer: A,E

Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config-router)#default-information originate
D. router(config-router)#default-information originate always
Answer: A

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4.
Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Answer: B

Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration.
Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.
B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.
C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.
Answer: B

When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, how does the interface respond when it receives a BPDU?
A. It continues operating normally.
B. It goes into a down/down state.
C. It becomes the root bridge for the configured VLAN.
D. It goes into an errdisable state.
Answer: D

Which statement about RADIUS security is true?
A. It supports EAP authentication for connecting to wireless networks.
B. It provides encrypted multiprotocol support.
C. Device-administration packets are encrypted in their entirety.
D. It ensures that user activity is fully anonymous.
Answer: A

Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device
Answer: ADE

What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?
A. Forwarding
B. Enabled
C. Disabled
D. errdisabled
Answer: D

Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol?
A. MSTP
B. RSTP
C. PVST+
D. Mono Spanning Tree
Answer: A

Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports?
A. Trunk Ports
B. Access Ports
C. Dynamic Auto
D. Dynamic Desirable
Answer: C

Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses (Choose two) ?
A. DNS
B. DHCPv6
C. DHCP
D. autoconfiguration
Answer: BD

What is the authoritative source for an address lookup?
A. a recursive DNS search
B. the operating system cache
C. the ISP local cache
D. the browser cache
Answer: A

If you are configuring syslog messages specifying `logging trap warning', which log messages will the router send?
A. 0-4
B. 0-5
C. 0-6
D. 0-2
E. 0-1
Answer: A


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